All categories

3 years ago

Can someone explain to me how to do this?

Mathematics

1 answer:

shtirl [24]3 years ago

5 0

$Answer: \\ {x}^{2} + 1 = 5x\Leftrightarrow {x}^{2} - 5x + 1 = 0 \\ x = \frac{ - b \pm \sqrt{ {b}^{2} - 4ac } }{2a} = \frac{5\pm \sqrt{25 - 4} }{2} = \frac{5 \pm \sqrt{21} }{2} \\ \Rightarrow A \: \& \: C$

You might be interested in

Solve the system of equations

kaheart [24]

Answer:

x=-12,y=3

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2x+6y=12

y=x+15

since y=x+15

substitute y in first equation, we have

1/2x+6(x+15)=12

open the bracket

1/2x+6x+90=12

1/2x+6x=12-90

x/2+6x= -78

13x/2=-78

13x=2×-78

x=-12

Now x=-12, put x=-12 in the second equation, we have

y=x+15

y=-12+15

y=3

hope it helps

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

given 65,72 and 96 as the three sides of a triangle, classify it as one of the following in the picture. please help!!!!

Valentin [98]

Answer: A) Acute

Step-by-step explanation:

Compare the sum of the squares of the two smaller numbers (a² + b²) to the square of the largest number (c²).

If a² + b² > c², then the triangle is Acute

If a² + b² = c², then the triangle is Right

If a² + b² < c², then the triangle is Obtuse

65² + 72² ____ 96²

4225 + 5184 ____ 9216

9409 > 9216 So, the triangle is Acute.

7 0

3 years ago

If the radius of a circle is 10cm, what will be the area of the circle?

malfutka [58]

Answer:

314

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the definite integral of log (tan x) with range from 90 to 0

nasty-shy [4]

Substituting x with π/2 - x gives the equivalent integral,

$\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\tan(x))\,\mathrm dx=-\int_{\frac\pi2}^0\log(\cot(x))(-\mathrm dx)=\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\cot(x))\,\mathrm dx$

So if we let J denote the value of the integral, we have

$J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\tan (x))\,\mathrm dx$

$J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\log(\cot (x))\,\mathrm dx$

$\implies 2J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}\left(\log(\tan (x))+\log(\cot (x))\right)\,\mathrm dx$

Condensing the logarithms, we have

log(tan(x)) + log(cot(x)) = log(tan(x) cot(x)) = log(1) = 0

since cot(x) = 1/tan(x), which means

$2J=\displaystyle\int_0^{\frac\pi2}0\,\mathrm dx=0$

and so the original integral has a value of J = 0.

3 0

3 years ago

HELP HELP QUICK WILL GET MARKED BRAINLIEST

jeyben [28]

I believe you're right with what you have
the price decrease being 5% (the .95) and the increase by 15% (the 1.15)

8 0

4 years ago