Answer:
c.a $1,000 bond sold for $1,012.50.
Explanation:
We assume the par value is $1,000 and since the bond is issued at 101.25 that means its selling price is
= $1,000 × 101.25%
= $1,012.50
Since the bond is issued more than the face value that reflects the premium and if the bond is issued less than the face value so it is issued at a discount
So the right option is c.
Answer:
Bonds Payable $1000000 Dr
Gain on redemption $15000 Cr
Discount on bonds Payable $10000 Cr
Cash $975000 Cr
Explanation:
The face value of bonds payable is $1000000 while they are a discount bond and carry a discount of $10000. The value of bonds is 1000000 - 10000 = 990000.
The bonds, however, are redeemed at 97.5 which means they are redeemed by paying 97.5% of face value which comes out to be 975000.
Thus, the difference between their value and the redemption price is the gain as value is greater than the price paid for them at redemption.
Gain = 990000 - 975000 = $15000
Answer:
The Correct Answer is "D"
Explanation:
When aggregate demand moves to the right; there is an enhancement in the general cost level just as the genuine GDP. When there is a rightward move of the aggregate supply, genuine GDP increments yet broad value level reductions. It might happen that the size of the two movements is same with the goal that cost level stays unaltered pretty much however genuine GDP increments.
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Because naturally within a market the equilibrium price is trying to be reached, (besides price ceilings and floors imposed by the government), Sellers will naturally push the price downwards because they must compete with each other to make a living. Thus answer C. is correct.
Answer:
which answers so i can help you mate
Explanation:
