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Ugo [173]
3 years ago
13

Select the correct statement regarding managerial and financial accounting. Multiple Choice Timeliness is more important in fina

ncial accounting than in managerial accounting. Both managerial and financial accounting use economic and physical data in addition to financial data. Users of managerial accounting information desire greater aggregation than do users of financial accounting information. Financial accounting is more highly regulated than managerial accounting.
Business
2 answers:
rusak2 [61]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Financial accounting is more highly regulated than managerial accounting.

Explanation:

Financial accounting is highly regulated and follows laid down principles that must be followed. International Financial Reporting Standard (IFRS) and Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) are two examples of regulatory guidelines for financial accounting.

On the other hand managerial accounting is flexible and tailored to the manager's needs.

It must not follow the strict guidelines of financial accounting. This is because managerial accounting is used internally by a company and is not subject to public scrutiny.

tigry1 [53]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: Financial accounting is more highly regulated than managerial accounting.

Explanation:

Financial Accounting is meant to provide information about a company to stakeholders which includes investors, potential investors, creditors and the like. For this reason, it is quite regulated. In the US, the GAAP governs Financial Accounting and guides how information should be accounted and presented and in the rest the world IFRS is usually used. This shows how regulated Financial accounting is.

Managerial Accounting on the other hand is meant to provide information based on the figures on how a company can take advantage of the numbers. They are therefore less regulated and can involve tests that cannot be done in financial accounting. Managerial Accounting is not even regulated by GAAP.

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Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly.
Alika [10]

Answer:

its to easy

Explanation:

i know it

7 0
2 years ago
All of the following are conducive to economic growth except
zysi [14]

Answer:

B. an unfavorable balance of trade and payments

Explanation:

  • The BOP or the balance of trade is defined as the net gains or net exports that make the balance of payments and is said to be favorable when the country export more and imports less and is a positive change.
  • It is said to be negative when the country imports more and exports less thus unfavorable in terms of the trade and payments.
  • <u>Hence it means that the country has a deficit and this can impact the services and is not good for the economic growth perspective.</u>
6 0
3 years ago
Recession and inflation have decreased the value of your investments. This is an example of ______.a. economic risk. b. industry
Fantom [35]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Economic risk is the risk that macroeconomic conditions would affect the value of investment .

Examples of economic risks are Recession and inflation

5 0
3 years ago
On July 16, 2017, Logan acquires land and a building for $500,000 to use in his sole proprietorship. Of the purchase price, $400
SashulF [63]

Answer:

A.Land $100,000

Building 400,000

B.Land $100,000

Building 395,292

Explanation:

a. Logan's adjusted basis at acquisition date will be the cost of the land and that of the building which is:

Land $100,000

Building 400,000

b. What will be Logan adjusted basis at the end of 2017 :

Land will be: $100,000

Building will be :395,292

($400,000 − $4,708)

Thus the Depreciation is a capital recovery.

4 0
3 years ago
A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

6 0
2 years ago
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