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azamat
3 years ago
7

Which definition of the time designation BCE is correct?

History
2 answers:
Maksim231197 [3]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Before Common Era

Explanation:

professor190 [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: Before Christ's Era

Explanation:

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India both benefited from and was harmed by British colonial
Blizzard [7]

The positive impact of British colonialism in India is related to democracy in the country, which was instituted through British investment in Indian institutions such as courts and universities.

The negative impacts are related to the use of violence by British colonists throughout colonization.

<h3>British India</h3>

It corresponds to the period from 1757 to 1857, in which India was dominated by the British empire, which established colonialism in the country by establishing trading posts and exploiting resources.

Therefore, the positive and negative impacts of colonialism in India are related to the governance system of the British, which despite instituting democratic systems, also used violence and war to increase its control.

Find out more information about British India here:

brainly.com/question/873957

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List seven laws of human development that Jesus followed .​
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

In the Epistle to the Galatians, written by the Apostle Paul to a number of early Christian communities in the Roman province of Galatia in central Anatolia, he wrote: "Bear one another's burdens, and so fulfill the law of Christ." (Galatians 6:2, NKJV). This phrase appears once and is never defined. It has been suggested that "the law of Christ" could be an allusion to the second greatest commandment ("love thy neighbor") or the New Commandment ("love one another; as I have loved you"). Others suggest this phrase is just another name for "the law of God" as Christians believe the Messiah is God.

Possibly related, in a letter to the early Christians of Corinth, Greece, in the First Epistle to the Corinthians, Paul wrote: "To those not having the law I became like one not having the law (though I am not free from God's law but am under Christ's law), so as to win those not having the law." (1 Corinthians 9:21, NIV). In the Greek, the wording is, "to those without law, as without law -- (not being without law to God, but within law to Christ) -- that I might gain those without law." (1 Corinthians 9:21, YLT)

It is not clear exactly what Paul means by the phrase, "the law of Christ". Although Paul mentions Biblical law several times (e.g., Romans 2:12–16, 3:31, 7:12, 8:7–8, Galatians 5:3, Acts 24:14, 25:8) and preached about Ten Commandment topics such as idolatry (e.g., 1 Corinthians 5:11, 6:9–10, 10:7, 10:14, Galatians 5:19–21, Ephesians 5:5, Colossians 3:5, Acts 17:16–21, 19:23–41), he consistently denies that salvation, or justification before God, is based on "works of the law" (e.g., Galatians 3:6–14), though the meaning of this phrase is also disputed by scholars, see for example the New Perspective on Paul#Works of the Law.

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3 years ago
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Why did the colonist decide to destroy the tea
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