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Andrej [43]
3 years ago
13

Do we get to see all sides of the moon? Why?

Chemistry
2 answers:
nignag [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

As the earth orbits around the earth, the moon orbits around us, meaning it shows its entire body as it orbits

Slav-nsk [51]3 years ago
4 0

Explanation:

Only one side of the Moon is visible from Earth because the Moon rotates on its axis at the same rate that the Moon orbits the Earth- a situation known as synchronous rotation, or tidal locking. The Moon is directly illuminated by the Sun, and the cycilally varying view conditions cause the lunar phases.

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In an experiment, you measure a solution absorbance of 0.2 with a path length of 1cm. If the molar absorptivity coefficient is 5
postnew [5]

A solution has an absorbance of 0.2 with a path length of 1 cm. Given the molar absorptivity coefficient is 59 cm⁻¹ M⁻¹, the molarity is 0.003 M.

<h3>What does Beer-Lambert law state?</h3>

The Beer-Lambert law states that for a given material sample, path length and concentration of the sample are directly proportional to the absorbance of the light.

A solution has an absorbance of 0.2 with a path length of 1 cm. Given the molar absorptivity coefficient is 59 cm⁻¹ M⁻¹, we can calculate the molarity of the solution using the following expression.

A = ε × b × c

c = A / ε × b

c = 0.2 / (59 cm⁻¹ M⁻¹) × 1 cm = 0.003 M

where,

  • A is the absorbance.
  • ε is the path length.
  • b is the molar absorptivity coefficient.
  • c is the molar concentration.

A solution has an absorbance of 0.2 with a path length of 1 cm. Given the molar absorptivity coefficient is 59 cm⁻¹ M⁻¹, the molarity is 0.003 M.

Learn more about the Beer-Lambert law here: brainly.com/question/12975133

7 0
3 years ago
What is the total probability of finding a particle in a one-dimensional box in level n = 4 between x = 0 and x = L/8?
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

P = 1/8

Explanation:

The wave function of a particle in a one-dimensional box is given by:

\psi = \sqrt \frac{2}{L} sin(\frac{n \pi x}{L})

Hence, the probability of finding the particle in the  one-dimensional box is:

P = \int_{x_{1}}^{x_{2}} \psi^{2} dx

P = \int_{x_{1}}^{x_{2}} (\sqrt \frac{2}{L} sin(\frac{n \pi x}{L}))^{2} dx

P = \frac{2}{L} \int_{x_{1}}^{x_{2}} (sin^{2}(\frac{n \pi x}{L}) dx

Evaluating the above integral from x₁ = 0 to x₂ = L/8 and solving it, we have:

P = \frac{2}{L} [\frac{L}{16} (1 - 4\frac{sin(\frac{n \pi}{4})}{n \pi})]

P = \frac{1}{8} (1 - 4\frac{sin(\frac{n \pi}{4})}{n \pi})    

Solving for n=4:

P = \frac{1}{8} (1 - 4\frac{sin(\frac{4 \pi}{4})}{4 \pi})    

P = \frac{1}{8} (1 - \frac{sin (\pi)}{\pi})    

P = \frac{1}{8}

I hope it helps you!

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