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nignag [31]
4 years ago
9

Which of the following explains why the Munich Agreement is an example of appeasement?

History
2 answers:
Ksenya-84 [330]4 years ago
8 0

Answer;

The participants gave Hitler something valuable in exchange for peace.

Explanation;

-The Munich Agreement also called the Munich Pact was an international agreement established in 1938 that was designed to avoid war between the powers of Europe by allowing Nazi Germany under Adolf Hitler to annex the Sudetenland.

-Munich pact is a classic example of appeasement is the Munich Pact of 1938, negotiated between Neville Chamberlain and Adolf Hitler. It was meant to try to appease Hitler so that he did not continue attacking Europe.

Valentin [98]4 years ago
6 0
It was an example of appeasement because it was an agreement in which the western countries agreed for Hitler to get something that he wanted but that the other countries (France, UK) did not want to give, but agreed to give nonetheless because they hoped they could achieve piece in this fashion.

The thing that Hitler got was a part of Czechoslovakia, Sudetenland.
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