1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
nignag [31]
3 years ago
9

Which of the following explains why the Munich Agreement is an example of appeasement?

History
2 answers:
Ksenya-84 [330]3 years ago
8 0

Answer;

The participants gave Hitler something valuable in exchange for peace.

Explanation;

-The Munich Agreement also called the Munich Pact was an international agreement established in 1938 that was designed to avoid war between the powers of Europe by allowing Nazi Germany under Adolf Hitler to annex the Sudetenland.

-Munich pact is a classic example of appeasement is the Munich Pact of 1938, negotiated between Neville Chamberlain and Adolf Hitler. It was meant to try to appease Hitler so that he did not continue attacking Europe.

Valentin [98]3 years ago
6 0
It was an example of appeasement because it was an agreement in which the western countries agreed for Hitler to get something that he wanted but that the other countries (France, UK) did not want to give, but agreed to give nonetheless because they hoped they could achieve piece in this fashion.

The thing that Hitler got was a part of Czechoslovakia, Sudetenland.
You might be interested in
Which of these states had not yet held a vote about prohibition as of 1855?
BartSMP [9]
Flordia had not held a vote about prohibition as of 1855.
7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following were enemies of the Roman Empire?
Vanyuwa [196]
I would say the answer is Visigoths.
7 0
3 years ago
What is colonial slavery?
kakasveta [241]
<span>Colonial slavery usually refers to slavery in the American Colonial period between the early 1600s and the late 1700s when the colonies became independent from Britain. </span>
7 0
3 years ago
Why was buddhisim successful in challenging brahmin power​
kicyunya [14]

Answer:

Brahmin power is a fiction - India was always ruled by kings not priests. Buddha himself was a scion of a royal family as were many other sages and enlightened beings.

Buddhism was never a political movement - it was about achieving freedom from suffering not about power and prestige.

Buddha like many of his contemporaries among the Hindus and the Jain challenged many of the philosophical positions of each other but socially lived in cooperation and harmony.

Explanation:

hope you enjoy

5 0
2 years ago
Chandler has been saving money from his paycheck each month to buy a computer. Joey doesn't have the cash to buy a computer, but
Fiesta28 [93]

The answer is B. Just took the exam and got it correct.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • What is the difference between a village, kingdom, city-state, and empire?
    15·2 answers
  • Which was true of the authors of the Articles of Confederation?
    6·1 answer
  • Can someone give me at least 10 examples of why Thomas Jefferson should be admired? Why he was a resident back then?
    13·1 answer
  • Use terms federalists, antifederalists, bill of rights, and ratification in a paragraph?
    11·1 answer
  • What was significant about anwar el Sadat’s rule in Egypt
    7·1 answer
  • Which of the following terms in the process of creating a set of artifacts base don the idea that older artifacts are found deep
    15·1 answer
  • Who is the “Friend” that Gandhi is writing this letter to?
    10·1 answer
  • The Kansas-Nebraska Act did all of the following, except what?
    15·1 answer
  • Select all the correct answers.
    13·1 answer
  • WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!!!!!!!!!
    6·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!