Answer:
The next step is to start treatment with third generation cephalosporin combined or not with B-lactams according to the evolution of the symptoms.
Answer:
the findings are consistent with malignancy
https://quizlet.com/252246383/prep-u-breast-exam-flash-cards/
Answer:
A. Aortic insufficiency is commonly associated with subarterial VSD.
Explanation:
In interventricular septal defects of the outflow tract in the heart, the subarterial infundibular interventricular communications are observed. This situation or anatomical condition can generate the development of prolapse and / or aortic insufficiency. The anatomical origin that could generate an aortic prolapse is the absence of support of the anterior sigmoid, since there would be no infundibular septum beneath it. The triggering of the prolapse and the subsequent insufficiency would be the difference in pressure generated between aorta and pulmonary infundibulum. For this reason there is an increased hemodynamic risk in complications of the disease.
Premature because when a baby is born not at normal weight the chances are likely that they were conceived early
