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marin [14]
3 years ago
10

F(n) = 93 + 4(n − 1)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lunna [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

f(1) = 93, f(n) = f(n-1) +4

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of f(1) is:

f(1) = 93 +4\cdot (1-1)

f(1) = 93

The values for n and n-1, are respectively:

f(n-1) = 93 + 4\cdot (n-2)

f(n) = 93 + 4\cdot (n-1)

After some algebraic manipulation, the following expression is obtained:

f(n) = 93 + 4\cdot (n-2) + 4

f(n) = f(n-1) +4

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If the FDIC has an insurance fund of $67. 8 billion and must use 7. 6% of it to cover several failed banks, approximately how mu
Black_prince [1.1K]

The remaining money will be $62. 65 billion

<h3>What will be the remaining fund in FDIC?</h3>

Given amount =$67. 8 billion

Amount used to cover several failed banks = 7.6% of the total amount

So the amount used to cover several failed banks=  \dfrac{67.8\times 7.6}{100}

Amount = 5.1528

So the remaining amount = 67.8-5.15=62.65

Thus the remaining money will be $62. 65 billion

To know more about percentage follow

brainly.com/question/24304697

4 0
2 years ago
Help me if you understand thanks sm
kumpel [21]
First, find the slope of the line using the formula for slope:

m = (y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1)

m = (4 - (-2)) / (-3 - 2) = -6/5

Then, use the point-slope formula using a point that you were given and the slope that you calculated.

y - y1 = m(x - x1)

y - 4 = (-6/5)(x + 3)

Then, simply get y alone.

y = (-6/5)x + 2/5
3 0
2 years ago
What is 68 percent of 575?
Travka [436]

Answer:

391

Step-by-step explanation:

First you must make the fraction a decimal so you can use it in an equation.

To do so move the . over to the left twice.

.68

Now multiply 575 by .68

575 x .68=391

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use the periodic compound interest formula to solve.
77julia77 [94]

Answer:

$15,539.67

Step-by-step explanation:

Compound Interest Formula

\large \text{$ \sf A=P\left(1+\frac{r}{n}\right)^{nt} $}

where:

  • A = final amount
  • P = principal amount
  • r = interest rate (in decimal form)
  • n = number of times interest applied per time period
  • t = number of time periods elapsed

Given:

  • P = $11,000
  • r = 5.8% = 0.058
  • n = 4 (quarterly)
  • t = 6 years

Substitute the given values into the formula and solve for A:

\implies \sf A=11000\left(1+\frac{0.058}{4}\right)^{(4 \times 6)}

\implies \sf A=11000(1.0145)^{24}

\implies \sf A=15539.67451...

Therefore, the value of the investment after 6 years will be $15,539.67 to the nearest cent.

3 0
2 years ago
Round the greater number to the tens place. Then calculate the product.
Nonamiya [84]

Answer:

d:192

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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