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3 years ago

F(n) = 93 + 4(n − 1)

Mathematics

1 answer:

Lunna [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

$f(1) = 93$ , $f(n) = f(n-1) +4$

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of f(1) is:

$f(1) = 93 +4\cdot (1-1)$

$f(1) = 93$

The values for n and n-1, are respectively:

$f(n-1) = 93 + 4\cdot (n-2)$

$f(n) = 93 + 4\cdot (n-1)$

After some algebraic manipulation, the following expression is obtained:

$f(n) = 93 + 4\cdot (n-2) + 4$

$f(n) = f(n-1) +4$

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If the FDIC has an insurance fund of $67. 8 billion and must use 7. 6% of it to cover several failed banks, approximately how mu

Black_prince [1.1K]

The remaining money will be $62. 65 billion

<h3>What will be the remaining fund in FDIC?</h3>

Given amount =$67. 8 billion

Amount used to cover several failed banks = 7.6% of the total amount

So the amount used to cover several failed banks= $\dfrac{67.8\times 7.6}{100}$

$Amount = 5.1528$

So the remaining amount = $67.8-5.15=62.65$

Thus the remaining money will be $62. 65 billion

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4 0

2 years ago

Help me if you understand thanks sm

kumpel [21]

First, find the slope of the line using the formula for slope:

m = (y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1)

m = (4 - (-2)) / (-3 - 2) = -6/5

Then, use the point-slope formula using a point that you were given and the slope that you calculated.

y - y1 = m(x - x1)

y - 4 = (-6/5)(x + 3)

Then, simply get y alone.

y = (-6/5)x + 2/5

3 0

2 years ago

What is 68 percent of 575?

Travka [436]

Answer:

391

Step-by-step explanation:

First you must make the fraction a decimal so you can use it in an equation.

To do so move the . over to the left twice.

.68

Now multiply 575 by .68

575 x .68=391