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jok3333 [9.3K]
3 years ago
6

URGENT NEED HELP done by Friday

Mathematics
2 answers:
Mama L [17]3 years ago
8 0
1a .5
1b 103

2a 30
2b 1

3a 6
3b .4

4a 270
4b 9

5a 8
5b 7625

Hope this helped :)
Crank3 years ago
6 0
Um i can do these in my calculator if u want 
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PLEASE HELP ME <br><br> I need help so please help me
Y_Kistochka [10]

Answer:

2/7

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because the slope is positive so that gets rid of both of the negatives, and the line is not straight but if the line was horizontally straight then your slope would be zero. So I just did process of elimination.

8 0
3 years ago
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How many strings of eight uppercase English letters are there if no letter can be repeated?
lorasvet [3.4K]
26*25*24*23*22*21*20*19 which is 62,990,928,000 strings.
3 0
3 years ago
A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 17

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.5

Compute the probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

This is

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{17,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{17} \approx 0

P(X = 1) = C_{17,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{16} = 0.0001

P(X = 2) = C_{17,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{15} = 0.0010

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0 + 0.0001 + 0.0010 = 0.0011

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

5 0
2 years ago
Write as an improper fraction<br> 8 1/2<br> (Simplify your answer.)
liq [111]

Answer:

\frac{17}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert a mixed fraction to a improper fraction, you have to multiply the denominator (2) by the whole number (8). 8 multiplied by 2 is 16. Then add the numerator (1). 16+1=17. That becomes your numerator, the denominator (2) stays the same.

I hope this helps!

3 0
3 years ago
Which statement best explains the relationship between
Paladinen [302]

A- they are parallel because they have equal slopes.

7 0
2 years ago
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