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ella [17]
3 years ago
10

The Oxford Heating Company has been very successful in the past four years. Over these years, it paid common stock dividend of $

4 in the first year, $4.20 in the second year, $4.41 in the third year, and its most recent dividend was $4.63. The company wishes to continue this dividend growth indefinitely. The expected growth rate in dividends is closest to
Business
1 answer:
kenny6666 [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is 5%.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

We can calculate the growth rate by using following formula:

Growth rate = (Dividend of 3rd year ÷ Dividend of 1st year)^1/2 -1

By putting the value in the formula, we get

Growth rate = ($4.41 ÷ $4 )^1/2 - 1

= ( $0.41)^1/2 -1

= 0.05 or 5%

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Johan was a newly hired attorney for Crontel Manufacturing, Inc. Even though he reported directly to the president of the compan
pickupchik [31]

According to the information, Johan was beginning to recognize the informal organizational culture at Crontel Manufacturing.

<h3 /><h3>What is informal organizational culture?</h3>

It corresponds to the way in which organizational methods, regulations and practices are established in organizational routines, that is, in an informal culture, the roles and responsibilities of each position may be opposed to their formal distribution.

Therefore, the informal organization can be developed according to interpersonal relationships and activity patterns, which may or may not be reflected in the company's organizational chart.

Find out more about informal organization here:

brainly.com/question/1996110

6 0
2 years ago
What can you do to figure out how much you can afford when buying a car?
GuDViN [60]
You can check your credit and you can us it for the car u want ,

5 0
3 years ago
or 2018, Gourmet Kitchen Products reported $22 million of sales and $18 million of operating costs (including depreciation). The
Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

Economic value added = $1,250,000

Explanation:

Economic value added (EVA) = Net operating profit after taxes - Invested capital * cost of capital

Economic value added= [($22,000,000 - $18,000,000) * (1 - 0.35)] - [$15,000,000 * 9%]

Economic value added =  ($4,000,000 * 0.65) - $1,350,000

Economic value added  = $2,600,000 - $1,350,000

Economic value added = $1,250,000

5 0
3 years ago
Dragon Inc. a NJ based construction firm is evaluating whether to replace an aging machine with a new model. For the old machine
Vilka [71]

Answer:

It should replace the old machine. In the current accounting period.

Explanation:

We need to perform a relevant cost analysis:

Keep the machine:

F0 = $0

F1 = $1500 maintenance

F2 = $3,000 maintenance

F3 = $6,000 maintenance

F4 = $12,000 maintenance

F5 =$24,000 maintenance + 250 resale value

replace the machine:

F0 = -12,000 purchase + 4,000 sale of old machine = -800

F1 = $900 maintenance

F2 = $900 maintenance

F3 = $900 maintenance

F4 = $900 maintenance

F5 =$900 maintenance + 1,500 resale value

As revenues are the same for each machine, we ignore them. We will only focus on the cost each machine generate:

We solve for the present worth of each machine with a discount rate of 12%

\displaystyle PV_{old} = -\frac{1,500}{1.12} - \frac{3,000}{1.12^2} - \frac{6,000}{1.12^3} - \frac{12,000}{1.12^4} - \frac{23,750}{1.12^5}\\\\\displaystyle PV_{old} = -29,104.15

\displaystyle PV_{new} = -8,000 - \frac{900}{1.12} - \frac{900}{1.12^2} - \frac{900}{1.12^3} - \frac{900}{1.12^4} +  \frac{600}{1.12^5}\\\\\displaystyle PV_{new} = -10,393.16

As the present worth of the new machine is lower, the best decision for the company is to purchase the new machine and sale the old machine.

Delaying this will incur in higher maintenance cost (1,500 - 900)

and a lower recovery value (4,000 - 2,000)

As there is no cost saving for delaying the purchase, it should be made immediately.

8 0
3 years ago
Presented below are two independent cases related to available-for-sale debt investments. Case 1 Case 2 Amortized cost $41,640 $
netineya [11]

Answer:

Case 1 = $9,420

Case 2 = 0

Explanation:

Determining the amount of impairment loss is given below:-

Case 1

Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value

= $41,640 - $32,220

= $9,420

Case 2

Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value

= 91,800 - $102,220

= 0

Since, the fair value is higher than Amortized cost so the value of Impairment loss in case 2 is 0.

5 0
4 years ago
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