Answer:Your left hand side evaluates to:
m+(−1)mn+(−1)m+(−1)mnp
and your right hand side evaluates to:
m+(−1)mn+(−1)m+np
After eliminating the common terms:
m+(−1)mn from both sides, we are left with showing:
(−1)m+(−1)mnp=(−1)m+np
If p=0, both sides are clearly equal, so assume p≠0, and we can (by cancellation) simply prove:
(−1)(−1)mn=(−1)n.
It should be clear that if m is even, we have equality (both sides are (−1)n), so we are down to the case where m is odd. In this case:
(−1)(−1)mn=(−1)−n=1(−1)n
Multiplying both sides by (−1)n then yields:
1=(−1)2n=[(−1)n]2 which is always true, no matter what n is
each trial is independent so do
.5 x .5 x .5 or .5^3
.125 is the probability.
Answer:
1 only
Step-by-step explanation:
because it talks about a coin and a dice and the rest is about cards
Advice:
I've seen this around quite a bit. what image is it referring to? I cannot answer this because there is no image.
