Answer: D. A & C
Explanation:
A long term liability is one that is due to be paid in a period longer than a year. The loan is due in less than a year so the only way to classify it as a long term liability is to make it a loan that will extend past a year. This can be done through refinancing which is to replace the current loan with another loan.
Karin's company therefore would need to demonstrate that the obligation can be refinanced on a long-term basis by them and they must also have the intention to do so as well.
Answer:
Ricardo’s Theory of Comparative Advantage
Explanation:
Comparative advantage is the term used to define the ability of an individual, firm or country to produce a particular good or service at a lower opportunity cost than that if it’s competitors or trade partners. Opportunity cost is the benefit lost from the second best alternative.
When a country can produce a product more efficiently (i.e maximum output using minimum resources) than that of its trade partners, it is known as that it has absolute advantage in that product. India tends to have absolute advantage in both business processes outsourcing as well as producing agricultural commodities as it is mentioned that it can produce both of these more efficiently than the United States.
However, although it has absolute advantage in both, it is still less efficient in producing agricultural commodities when compared to business process outsourcing. In other words, if it attempts to produce agricultural commodities in-house, the benefit lost from the second best alternative: business process outsourcing is high. The opportunity cost is higher when it produces agricultural commodities than it is when it does business process outsourcing. Hence, due to the law of comparative advantage, it chooses to specialize in business process outsourcing and imports agricultural commodities.
Answer:
d.funded status relative to the accumulated benefit obligation.
Explanation:
Employees should be informed funded status relative to the accumulated benefit.
Answer:
Net capital spending = $2,985,000
Explanation:
There are two financial years in consideration
They are 2008 and 2009
Closing values of 2008 = Opening values of 2009
Now, closing value of net assets at 2008 = $4 million
Closing value of net assets for 2009 = $6.2 million
Net capital spending = Gross fixed assets at year end - Opening fixed assets
Gross fixed assets = Net Value + Depreciation
= $6.2 million + $785,000
= $6,985,000
Thus, Net capital spending in 2009 = $6,985,000 - $4,000,000
= $2,985,000
The money is skimmed before the transaction is processed. In a casino the casinos winning are moves to a count room during the movement money is removed before being counted.
