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AlekseyPX
3 years ago
14

December 31, Year 1, the Loudoun Corporation estimated that 3% of its credit sales of $112,500 would be uncollectible. Loudoun u

ses the allowance me On thod of accounting for uncollectible accounts. In February of Year 2, f Loudoun's customers failed to pay his $1,050 account and the account was written off On April 4. Year 2 this customer paid Loudoun the $1,050 Which of the following answers correctly the customer's account? states the effect of Loudoun Company's February Year 2 entry to write off Assets = Liab.+Equity Rev. - Expenses = Net Inc. Cash Flow A. NA = NA + NA NA -NA = NA NA NA B. (1,050) = NA + (1,050) (1,050)-NA = (1,050) NA c. (1,050) = (1,050)+NA NA-NA=NA NA D.NA = (1,050)+(1,050) NA-(1,050)-(1,050) NA.
1. Option C
2. Option B
3. Option D
4. Option A
Business
1 answer:
allochka39001 [22]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. NA = NA + NA NA -NA = NA NA NA

Explanation:

As Year 2 the customer paid Loudoun the $1,050,which was written off On April 4, Year 1.

Therefore, the following journal entries to record the transaction.

Accounts receivable                     debit $1,050

Allowance for doubtful accounts credit $1,050

To record reinstatement of accounts receivable.

Cash                           debit $1,050

Accounts receivable credit $1,050

As one asset account is increase and another asset account is decreased.

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7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

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The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

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3 years ago
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