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Studentka2010 [4]
3 years ago
13

The United States wants to limit the amount of a product that can be imported into the country for a period of time by setting a

maximum import quantity. To do so, the United States should institute
Business
1 answer:
yulyashka [42]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The options for this question are the following:

a. an exchange rate

b. a quota

c. a boycott

d. a dumping law

e. a tariff`

The correct answer is b. a quota .

Explanation:

Import quotas are tools that countries have when it comes to limiting the physical quantity of a product that can be imported into their territories.

Within the different methods of control of foreign trade that a State has, there is the adoption of import quotas.

Therefore, this economic mechanism of trade restriction therefore supposes the application of limits of units or maximum weight of product that it is possible to import during a determined period of time.

Introducing this type of commercial measures is perfectly compatible with the introduction of others simultaneously. That is, a government can establish quota-based import trade strategies and set tariffs, for example.

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Rider Company is in the process of preparing it closing entries. It first closes its revenue accounts by crediting the Income Su
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

B. Debit Income summary                  Debit              $ 23,000

   Retained Earnings                           Credit                                $ 23,000

Explanation:

The closing entries are recorded to close the current year's income statement  to the retained earnings account,

According to the data in the question, the revenue is closed to the credit of the income Summary  of $ 68,000 and the expenses are closed to the debit of the Income Summary of $ 45,000. This leaves a credit balance of $ 23,000 in the income summary account which is closed by debiting the income summary account and crediting the retained earnings account.

Since the revenue exceeded the expenses, the result ia  a profir which should increase the retained earnings account, which would be the case by a credit to the retained earnings account.

7 0
3 years ago
A put option on a stock with a current price of $46 has an exercise price of $48. The price of the corresponding call option is
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

$5.73

Explanation:

The computation of the price of the put is shown below:

= Price of the corresponding call option - current price of put option + exercise price ÷ ( 1 + effective annual risk-free rate of interest) ^ number of  months ÷ total months in a year

= $4.20 - $46 + $48 ÷ ( 1 + 0.04) ^ 3 months ÷ 12 months

= $4.20 - $46 + $48 ÷ 1.0098534065

= $4.20 - $46 + 47.5316513156

= $5.73

8 0
3 years ago
If we had a situation of Diminishing Marginal Productivity, then this would be great news for the firm. Senior management loves
juin [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is the second option: False.

Explanation:

To begin with, the well known term of <em>"Diminishing Marginal Productivity"</em> is understood to be an economic law whose main purpose is to explain that given a certain level of an input, the production of the company will start to go down eventually after adding more and more of that variable. Therefore that this theory states that when a company adds more of a factor of production, everything else constant, when it reaches a certain level that input will start to affect the output of the good and with it the profits of the business. That is why that if the company is in a situation of diminishing marginal productivity the senior management would not be pleased.

3 0
3 years ago
The average debt incurred by a male pathological gambler in the US is between:
LiRa [457]

Answer:

$55,000 and $90,000

Explanation:

The average debt incurred by a male pathological gambler in the U.S. is between $55,000 and $90,000. The average rate of Norce for problem gamblers is nearly double that of non-gamblers.

3 0
3 years ago
The following information is available from the records of a manufacturing company that applies factory overhead based on direct
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

The manufactured overhead was under-estimated.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The actual manufacturing overhead costs incurred were $515,000.

Estimated Manufacturing overhead was $500,000.

Overhead allocation is the distribution of indirect costs to produced goods. When the administration has undervalued and under-funded the amount of money needed for non-production costs, they have under-allocated overhead.

<u>Over applied manufacturing overhead:</u>

<u></u>

Applied overhead>Actual overhead

<u>Under applied manufacturing overhead:</u>

Applied overhead<Actual overhead

In this exercise:

Actual manufacturing overhead - Estimated Manufacturing overhead= 515000- 500000= 15000

The manufactured overhead was under-estimated.

8 0
3 years ago
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