Answer:
c. $524,000 and $250,000
Explanation:
See the attached picture for detailed explanation.
Answer:
Shally will not having any amount of bad debt deduction for the present year.
Explanation:
In the present year, Shally will not having any amount of bad debt deduction because she has a gain or income of $5,000. As, last year she has account receivable of $60,000 but this year she settled the account by receiving the $65,000 amount. So, she has received more amount than the basis in the receivable. Therefore, she will not have any bad debt deduction this year.
Answer:
operation cash flow ( OCF ) is $98800
Explanation:
given data
number of units = 3800 units
variable cost = $185 per unit
fixed costs = $364,000
depreciation expense = $104,000
sales price = $305 per unit
tax rate = 35 %
fix cost = $360,000
to find out
what is the OCF given this analysis
solution
we know operation cash flow ( OCF ) is express as
OCF = [ { selling - variable cost ) × no of units } - fixed cost ] × [ tax rate ] + [ deprecation × tax rate ] ..............................1
put here all these value
OCF = [ { 305 - 185 ) × 3800 } - 360000 ] × [ 35% of income before tax ] + [ 104,000 × 0.35 ]
OCF = 96000 - 0.35×96000 + 36400
OCF = 62400 + 36400
OCF = $98800
Option C. barbell
By definition, money market products are liquid. Each buyer knows that they will be paid when they mature in the near future, so they are easily traded at a discount that matches the market rate.
When interest rates rise, bond prices fall (and vice versa), and long-term bonds are the most sensitive to changes in interest rates. This is because longer-term bonds have longer durations than shorter-term bonds that are nearing maturity with fewer coupon payments.
Special considerations. Series I bonds are considered low risk as they are backed by the full trust and credit of the U.S. government and do not depreciate in redemption value. However, that security comes with a low yield comparable to high-yield savings accounts and certificates of deposit (CDs).
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Answer: 24.48%
Explanation:
Return on the index over the year is calculated by;
= Dividend yield + (Ending index value - Beginning index value)/ Beginning index value
= 4.3% + (26,800 - 22,300) / 22,300
= 24.48%