Answer:
B. variable overhead efficiency variance
Explanation:
Answer option A, C, and D are incorrect. In variable overhead cost variance, we determine the difference between the actual and budgeted cost. In fixed overhead cost variance, we do not use allocation base cost. Again, in fixed overhead volume variance, we cannot use allocation base cost.
'B' is correct because the difference between the actual allocation base quantity and budgeted allocation base quantity multiplying with the standard rate states the variable overhead efficiency variance. The activity level is required to determine efficiency variance.
Answer:
First year depreciation expense is $2,250
Explanation:
Total depreciation expense is given by:
Price - Salvage Value = 40,000 - 4,000 = 36,000
That $36,000 depreciation expense would be spread out for 200,000 miles.
So for the first year in which the truck is used 12,500 miles, the depreciation expense will be

Question answered.
Note:


I think the answer is “outages”? But I’m not completely sure.
Answer:
$368,000
Explanation:
In order to appraise the property using the capitalization approach, we must first determine a net cash flow:
net cash flow = $48,000 - $3,600 - $15,000 = $29,400
Now we calculate the property value using the perpetuity formula:
property value = net cash flow / capitalization rate = $29,400 / 8% = $367,500 which we must round up to $368,000
A property is being appraised using the income capitalization approach. Annually, it has an estimated gross income of $48,000, vacancy and credit losses of $3,600, and operating expenses of $15,000. Using a capitalization rate of 8%, what is the property's value (rounded up to the nearest $1,000)?