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Inessa05 [86]
3 years ago
10

During recessionary periods, bonds that were issued many years ago have a higher coupon rate than currently issued bonds. Theref

ore, they may sell at a premium, a price higher than their face value, because of currently low coupon rates. A $50,000 bond that was issued 15 years ago is for sale for $60,000. What rate of return per year will a purchaser make if the bond coupon rate is 19% per year payable semi-annually, and the bond is due 5 years from now?
Business
1 answer:
Mandarinka [93]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

YTM = 6.818%

Explanation:

YTM = \frac{C + \frac{F-P}{n }}{\frac{F+P}{2}}

C= cash payment of the bond: 50,000 x 19%/2 = 4,750

F= Face Value= 50000

P= purchase value=60000

n= number of payment= 5 years at 2 payment a year = 10

YTM = \frac{4750 + \frac{50,000-60,000}{10 }}{\frac{50,000+60,000}{2}}

Important: it is better to calculate the YTM using a financial calculator, this is an approximation

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The Digby team will select a Broad differentiation strategy for spreading its existence in every market segment.

<h3>What is Broad differentiation strategy?</h3>
  • A broad differentiation strategy consists of building a brand or business that is different in some way from its competition. It is applied to the industry and will appeal to a vast range of consumers.
  • Under this strategy, the Digby company will get a competitive advantage by differentiating their products with unique designs, product awareness, and easy availability. They have amazing research and development teams to keep their products exciting and the prices are quoted above average.

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6 0
1 year ago
A buyer and a seller enter a contract for the sale of a three-bedroom residential property. Shortly after the contract is in pla
Komok [63]

Answer:

The best answer to the question: How should the parties proceed, when talking about the buying of a house in which the buyer has already entered a contract with the seller of the property, before having an inspection performed on it, to find out that there are some issues with the property itself, would be, C: The fixes do not become part of the sales agreement.

Explanation:

To begin with, the buyer should have had the inspection done before entering an agreement, and much more signing the contract. Now that the contract is in place, and since the buyer did not have the inspection done beforehand, the terms that would have made the seller responsible for making fixes on the damaged property are not part of the contract. The buyer signed the contract without these adendums and therefore, it is no longer the seller´s responsibility, as part of the original contract, to take care of them. The buyer must abide by the original contract because he did not insist on having any such provisions placed on it that would have made the seller responsible for the fixes.

3 0
3 years ago
There is often only one provider of cable television services in each region of the country: Time Warner is in New York, Comcast
posledela

Answer:

monopolist

Explanation:

Monopolistic competition is a kind of imperfect competition in which specific person or enterprise is the only supplier of a particular commodity.

A monopolist is not very much concerned about the product as customers have no alternatives but to buy that product.

Also, he can change the price or quantity of the product as in an industry he is a single seller .

In the given question, it's given that There is often only one provider of cable television services in each region of the country: Time Warner is in New York, Comcast is in most of New England, and so forth.

So, it would have caused Comcast to become an overly large <u>monopolist</u> with too much power if it buys Time Warner.

7 0
3 years ago
Miguel Corporation, a foreign subsidiary of a U.S. parent company, has one asset (Land) and no liabilities. The functional curre
user100 [1]

Answer:

All the 4 statements are correct.

Explanation:

The International Accounting Standard on Currency changes says that the all the assets and liabilities of the subsidiary must be reported at market value of the asset both at the end of the year and at the time of sale of asset & payment of liability. So this means that the statement a and d are correct statements because the translation gain or loss is reported by using the spot rate which is the market value of the asset in the parent company's currency. Similarly, the statement b and c are correct because at the time of sale of subsidiary assets we are actually recognizing the remeasurement gain or loss by using the spot rate, which is the market value of the asset in the parent company's currency.

5 0
3 years ago
Renee paid $4,000 in mortgage interest on a $110,000 mortgage that was taken out when she bought her home several years ago. She
ruslelena [56]

Answer:

The amount that is deductible as interest expense for Renee in 2021 is:

= $4,000.

Explanation:

a) Data:

Home mortgage - $110,000

Interest on home mortgage = $4,000

Home equity loan for a cruise around the world = $130,000

Interest on the home equity loan = $8,000

Deductible interest expense for Renee in 2021 is $4,000

b) Usually, the interest expenses that a taxpayer pays on her home equity loan to enjoy a cruise around the world, on personal credit card, on automobile loan, and on other types of personal consumer finance interests are not tax-deductible.

4 0
3 years ago
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