How did industrialization in Great britin differ from industrialization in russia

History

1 answer:

Taya2010 [7]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Britain had an elite society that welcomed industrialization while Russia did not.

Explanation:

British elites were open to the idea of investing into railways and factories. Politically, the British also had a parliament that allowed some form of representation in the government. There was also no more serfdom at the time of industrialization in the early 1800s. On the other hand, Russian elites were very opposed to investing or industrialization as this could threaten their wealth that they already accumulated. Serfdom was still legal in Russia until March 3 1861 when Alexander II abolished it, which meant that many peasants were tied to the land and could not migrate to urban areas. Furthermore, Russia was fully autocratic unlike Britian and only saw the implementation of a parliament in 1905. All of this meant that Britain's industrialization was very quick and significantly earlier than Russia's.

You might be interested in

Why was the rena, ssance an important period in europen history.

Gnom [1K]

Answer:

The renaissance was an important period in European history due to it's great art.

Explanation:

The Renaissance was very important because it laid the "foundation" for the "age of exploration" and eventual 'European global domination'.

It was the age when many great arts were created. Europe was not a dominating in global power, at that time the strongest powers were the middle east, India and China.

At the when Europe saw the renaissance, it was the period of time right before the "age of exploration".

7 0

3 years ago

Describe Lincoln’s Emancipation Proclamation and its effects on the war.

Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer: the 1546

Explanation:

Your welcome

8 0

2 years ago

Which is not a type of heat transfer

kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

Induction and thermodynamic discharge

Explanation:

those are not a recognized type of heat transfer

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Michael is a business tycoon residing in the United States. Over the last five years, he has been funding other countries to man

AlladinOne [14]

I think that Michael committed TREASON against the United States.

Treason is defined in the United States Constitution. It is found in Article 2 Section 3 and it states the following:

"Treason against the United States, shall consist only in levying War against them, or in adhering to their Enemies, giving them Aid and Comfort. No Person shall be convicted of Treason unless on the Testimony of two Witnesses to the same overt Act, or on Confession in open Court."

Michael aided the enemies of the United States when he funded countries in manufacturing weapons that were used in the war against the United States.

6 0

2 years ago

How did the compromise of 1850 lead America in the Civil War. Paragraphs please

Vinvika [58]

Answer:

The compromise admitted California as a free state and did not regulate slavery in the remainder of the Mexican cession all while strengthening the Fugitive Slave Act, a law which compelled Northerners to seize and return escaped slaves to the South. please follow me ;)

5 0

2 years ago