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3 years ago

A real estate agent sells a house for $87,000. she gets a commission of 6% on the sale. what is her commission?

1 answer:

5 0

In order for us to know how much the real estate agent gets as the commission, we just have to multiply 6% by 87,000. So, 87,000 multiplied by 0.06 and we get 5,220. Therefore, the answer would be option B. $5,220.00 Hope this answers your question. Have a great day!

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Three consecutive even numbers have a sum where one half of that sum is between 90 and 105.

Darya [45]

$n;\ n+2;\ n+4-three\ consecutive\ even\ numbers\\\\90 \ \textless \ \dfrac{1}{2}(n+n+2+n+4) \ \textless \ 105\\\\90 \ \textless \ \dfrac{1}{2}(3n+6) \ \textless \ 105\ \ \ |multiply\ both\ sides\ by\ 2\\\\180 \ \textless \ 3n+6 \ \textless \ 210\ \ \ |subtract\ 6\ from\ both\ sides\\\\174 \ \textless \ 3n \ \textless \ 204\ \ \ |divide\ both\ sides\ by\ 3\\\\58 \ \textless \ n \ \textless \ 68\\\\Answer:\\60;\ 62;\ 64\ or\ 62;\ 64;\ 66;\ or\ 64;\ 66;\ 68\ or\ 66;\ 68;\ 70.$

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3 years ago

792m rounded to 2 significant figures

deff fn [24]

Answer:

790 with a dash over the 9

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

The null hypothesis in the Durbin-Watson test is always that there is a. negative autocorrelation. b. no autocorrelation. c. eit

Kamila [148]

Answer:

b. no autocorrelation.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Durbin-Watson test assumes that

H0:ρ=0

HA:ρ≠0

p=0 is a statement for the null hypothesis that assumes that the error term in one period is not correlated to the error term in the previous period.

The Durbin-Watson test is used in regression analysis to test for autocorrelation. The results from the test would always range from 0 to 4. A value of less than 2.0 indicates positive autocorrelation. A value of 2.0 indicates no autocorrelation, and a value of 2.0 to 4.0 indicates negative autocorrelation.

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4 years ago

Can some please help me with this problem It's a little confusing to me.

Nat2105 [25]

Diameter = 10.0002 inches, or 10 inches since were rounding to the nearest whole number.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A coin is tossed four times What is the probability of getting four heads? (1 mark) a) b) What is the probability of getting exa

BlackZzzverrR [31]

<h2>Answer:</h2>

1. A coin is tossed four times. What is the probability of getting four heads?

Each toss has a 1/2 chance of getting a head.

So the chance of getting all four heads can be calculated as :

$1/2\times1/2\times1/2\times1/2=1/16$

2. A coin is tossed four times. What is the probability of getting two heads?

Each toss can have 2 results, so 4 flips will have $2^{4}$ or 16 results.

Getting two heads means getting two tails also. So, we can get the number of times two heads come = $\frac{4!}{2!2!}$ = 6

We can write the groups like - {HHTT,HTHT,HTTH,THHT,THTH,TTHH}

So, the required probability is : 6/16 or 3/8.

3. Not getting two heads means getting 3 tails and 1 head or all tails.

Probability of having all tails = $1/2\times1/2\times1/2\times1/2=1/16$

Probability of one head(1st trial) and three tails = 1/16

Probability of one head (2nd trial) and three tails (the 1st, 3rd and 4th trials) = 1/16

Probability of one head (3rd trial) and three tails (the 1st, 2nd and 4th trials) = 1/16

Probability of one head (4th trial) and three tails (the 1st, 2nd and 3rd trials) = 1/16

So, the total probability showing only one or none head and at least three tails = $1/16+1/16+1/16+1/16+1/16=5/16$

6 0

3 years ago