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Debora [2.8K]
3 years ago
9

Which is a counterexample for the conditional statement shown?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Arte-miy333 [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: First Option

<em>The points have the same x-coordinate value.</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

By definition, a relation is considered a function if and only if for each input value x there exists <u><em>only one </em></u>output value y.

So, the only way that the line that connects two points in the coordinate plane is not a function, is that these two points have the same coordinate for x.

For example, suppose you have the points (2, 5) and (2, 8) and draw a line that connects these two points.

The line will be parallel to the y axis.

Note that the value of x is the same x = 2. But when x = 2 then y = 5 and y = 8.

There <u><em>are two output</em></u><em> </em>values (y = 8, y = 5) for the same input value x = 2.

In fact all the vertical lines parallel to the y-axis have infinite output values "y" for a single input value x. Therefore, they can not be defined as a function.

<u>Then the correct option is: </u>

<em>The points have the same x-coordinate value.</em>

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so it would become 3 : 4 
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3 years ago
Find the obtuse angle the line y-2x=7 makes with the x- axis
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5 0
3 years ago
A club is choosing 2 members to serve on a committee. The club has nominated 2 women and 4 men. Based on chance alone, what is t
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

53.33% probability that one woman and one man will be chosen to be on the committee

Step-by-step explanation:

A probability is the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes.

The order in which the members are chosen is not important, so we use the combinations formula to solve this question.

Combinations formula:

C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

What is the probability that one woman and one man will be chosen to be on the committee?

Desired outcomes:

One woman, from a set of 2, and one man, from a set of 4. So

D = C_{2,1}*C_{4,1} = \frac{2!}{1!1!}*\frac{4!}{1!3!} = 8

Total outcomes:

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T = C_{6,2} = \frac{6!}{2!4!} = 15

Probability:

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3 years ago
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