Answer:
A proof can be as follows:
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that an odd interger is of the form
where
is a integer and remember that two consecutive integer are two numbers of the form ![p, p+1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=p%2C%20p%2B1)
Suppose the
is an odd integer.
Then
must be an even integer and hence divisible by 2. Then we define
![p=\dfrac{n-1}{2}\\q=\dfrac{n-1}{2}+1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=p%3D%5Cdfrac%7Bn-1%7D%7B2%7D%5C%5Cq%3D%5Cdfrac%7Bn-1%7D%7B2%7D%2B1)
Then we have that
![p+q=\dfrac{n-1}{2}+\dfrac{n-1}{2}+1=\frac{(n-1)+(n-1)}{2}+1=\frac{2(n-1)}{2}+1=n-1+1=n](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=p%2Bq%3D%5Cdfrac%7Bn-1%7D%7B2%7D%2B%5Cdfrac%7Bn-1%7D%7B2%7D%2B1%3D%5Cfrac%7B%28n-1%29%2B%28n-1%29%7D%7B2%7D%2B1%3D%5Cfrac%7B2%28n-1%29%7D%7B2%7D%2B1%3Dn-1%2B1%3Dn)
The converse is as follows:
Let
an integer, then
are two consecutive integers. Then
is an odd integer.
Divide both sides by a
Bx + c =0
Subtract c from both sides
Bx= —c
Divide both sides by b
And your answer is x= — c/b
Answer:
23
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is 22.6 hope i helped!