Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
I cannot use the line tool for you, but I can rewrite the equations
y = -x + 4 is good enough
Two points for this graph:
x = 0 -> y = 4 gives the point (0, 4)
x = 1 -> y = 3 gives the point (1, 3)
18x + 6y = -6
6y = -18x - 6
y = -3x - 2
Two ponts for this graph:
x = 0 -> y = -2 gives the point (0, -2)
x = 1 -> y = -5 gives the point (1, -5 )
Sin(θ - 180)
sin(θ)cos(180) - cos(θ)sin(180)
sin(θ)[-1] - cos(θ)[0]
-sin(θ) - 0
-sin(θ)
Answer:
<em>71.6 degrees </em>
Step-by-step explanation:
The formula for calculating the angle between two vectors is expressed as;
u.v = |u||v|cos theta
u.v = (8, 4).(9, -9)
u.v = 8(9)+4(-9)
u.v = 72-36
u.v = 36
|u| = √8²+4²
|u| = √64+16
|u| = √80
|v| = √9²+(-9)²
|v| = √81+81
|v| = √162
36 = √80*√162 cos theta
36 = √12960 cos theta
36 = 113.84 cos theta
cos theta = 36/113.84
cos theta = 36/113.84
cos theta = 0.3162
theta = arccos (0.3162)
<em>theta = 71.6 degrees </em>
<em>Hence the angle between the given vectors is 71.6 degrees </em>
The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability
- The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
- The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
- The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>
From the question,
- Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
- 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective
From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two
So, the probability is:
p = 23/30
p = 0.767
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>
From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none
So, the probability is:
p = 0/30
p = 0
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>
The probability of hitting a headpin is:
p = 90%
The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:
P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)
So, we have:
P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1
P(4) = 0.3281
Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
Read more about probabilities at:
brainly.com/question/25870256
The experimental probability of rolling a 6 is 9/60 which can be determined by dividing the frequency of the observation 6 with the total frequency of the experiment.
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
Experimental probability is different from theoretical probability because the former is obtained by experimentation while the latter is what we expect theoretically.When we take a number of observations, the experimental probability and theoretical probability need not be the same.
In this question we have to determine the experimental probability of 6. It can be determined by dividing the frequency of the observation 6 by the total frequency of the experiment.
frequency of 6=9
total frequency=frequency of 1+frequency of 2+frequency of 3+frequency of 4+frequency of 5+frequency of 6
=13+11+9+8+10+9
=60
P(6)=frequency of 6/total frequency
=9/60
