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valentinak56 [21]
2 years ago
12

Minor Company installs a machine in its factory at the beginning of the year at a cost of $135,000. The machine's useful life is

estimated to be 5 years, or 300,000 units of product, with a $15,000 salvage value. During its first year, the machine produces 64,500 units of product. Determine the machines' first year depreciation under the units-of-production method.
Business
1 answer:
sasho [114]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$25,800

Explanation:

The units-of-production deprecation method depreciates an asset based on the total units produced each year.

Unit of production depreciation expense = (units produced / total expected units of production) × (cost of asset - salvage value)

(64,500 / 300,000) x ($135,000 - $15,000)

0.215 x $120,000 = $25,800

I hope my answer helps you

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Production Budget
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Answer and Explanation:

The preparation of production budget is shown below:-

                      Weightless Inc

                    Production Budget

         For the month ending October 31

                             Units Bath Scale            Units Gym Scale

Expected Units to

be sold                       150,000                         90,000

Desired Inventory,

October 31                  12,500                           8,000

Total                          162,500                           98,000

Less: Estimated Inventory,

October 1                   -18,000                           -10,000

Total Units to be

produced                  144,500                           88,000

5 0
2 years ago
An economist makes an assumption that each additional year of education causes future wages to rise by 7 percent. In this​ model
ladessa [460]

Answer:

Wage year 4= $12222.19

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Each additional year of education causes future wages to rise by 7 percent.

A person with 12 years of education makes ​$21 000 per​ year.

A person with 4 years of education=$?

We will use the present value formula to calculate the wage in year 0. Then with the final value formula calculate the year 4 wage.

PV= FV/[(1+r)^n]

FV=final value at t time

r= rate

n= period of time

PV= 21000/(1,07^12)= $9324. 2511

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Final Value year 4= 9324.2511*(1,07^4)= $12222.19

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makkiz [27]

Answer:

I think the most likely answer is choice B: "do their best to get along with difficult co-workers."

Explanation:

8 0
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Montano1993 [528]

Answer:

C. Accountant

7 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

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Explanation:

The reason is that the International Accounting Standard IAS-36 says that once the impairment is recognized for the intangible assets it can not be reversed which means that the amount reported would be $350,000. The reason is that it is very rare that the asset gain its value and specially those which are intangible assets. Most of the management in the 1990s-2000 tried to recognize a gain on impairment which was unjustifiable to increase their profits for the period so the standard specifically didn't permitted gain on a previously impaired asset.

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