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Anit [1.1K]
3 years ago
12

Byrd Company produces one product, a putter called GO-Putter. Byrd uses a standard cost system and determines that it should tak

e one hour of direct labor to produce one GO-Putter. The normal production capacity for this putter is 120,000 units per year. The total budgeted overhead at normal capacity is $1,080,000 comprised of $420,000 of variable costs and $660,000 of fixed costs. Byrd applies overhead on the basis of direct labor hours.
During the current year, Byrd produced 74,000 putters, worked 98,300 direct labor hours, and incurred variable overhead costs of $133,200 and fixed overhead costs of $612,000.

Required:
a. Compute the predetermined variable overhead rate and the predetermined fixed overhead rate.
b. Compute the applied overhead for Byrd for the year.
c. Compute the total overhead variance.
Business
1 answer:
Natalka [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard= 1 direct labor hour per unit

The total budgeted overhead at normal capacity is $1,080,000 comprised of $420,000 of variable costs and $660,000 of fixed costs.

During the current year, Byrd produced 74,000 putters, worked 98,300 direct labor hours, and incurred variable overhead costs of $133,200 and fixed overhead costs of $612,000.

First, we need to calculate the estimated overhead rate:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= (420,000 + 660,000)/120,000

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $9 per direct labor hour

Now, we can allocate overhead:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 9*98,300= $884,700

Finally, the total overhead variance:

Overhead variance= real overhead - allocated overhead

Overhead variance= 745,200 - 884,700

Overhead variance= 139,500 favorable

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Carson Company purchased a depreciable asset for $560,000. The estimated salvage value is $28,000, and the estimated useful life
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

$79,800

Explanation:

Depreciation expense using the activity method = (actual hours of use in a given period / total estimated hours of use ) × ( Cost of asset - Salvage value)

(1500/10,000) × ($560,000 - $28,000) = $79,800

I hope my answer helps you.

5 0
3 years ago
__________________ represents the total benefits offered to consumers through a channel of distribut
bezimeni [28]
A retail value chain represents the total benefits offered to consumers through a channel of distribution
7 0
4 years ago
The production department is proposing the purchase of an automatic insertion machine. It has identified 3 machines and has aske
cricket20 [7]

Answer: the correct answer is a. Machine B

Explanation:

Machine A average rate return

40000 out of 300000. It means that 300000 is 100% and $ 40000 is X. We apply a simple three rule:

40000       X                     X= 4000000/300000

300000     100%               X= 13.33%

Machine B average rate return

50000 out of 250000. It means that 250000 is 100% and $ 50000 is X. We apply a simple three rule:

50000       X                     X= 5000000/250000

250000     100%               X= 20%

Machine C average rate return

$75,000 out of $500,000. It means that $500,000 is 1005 and $75,000 is X. We apply a simple three rule

$75,000     X                       X=7500000/500000

$500,000  100%                 X= 15%

The highest average is the one onf Machine B

4 0
4 years ago
When sales exceed production, the net operating income reported under variable costing generally will be:_____.
padilas [110]

When sales exceed production, the net operating income reported under variable costing generally will be <u>greater than the net operating income reported under absorption costing</u>.

Under variable costing, constant manufacturing overhead fee is handled as product cost. If the range of devices produced exceeds the range of gadgets sold, then net operating income under absorption costing will: be extra than net operating earnings underneath variable costing.

Variable costing is a concept used in managerial and cost accounting wherein the fixed production overhead is excluded from the product price of manufacturing. The technique contrasts with absorption costing, in which the fixed manufacturing overhead is allotted to products produced.

Absorption costing, once in a while known as “full costing,” is a managerial accounting technique for taking pictures of all prices associated with manufacturing a selected product. The direct and oblique costs, together with direct substances, direct exertions, leases, and insurance, are accounted for with the aid of the use of this method.

Learn more about Absorption costing here brainly.com/question/26276034

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
Both Bond Sam and Bond Dave have 7.3 percent coupons, make semiannual payments, and are priced at par value. Bond Sam has three
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

Sam change:   -5.13%

Dave change -18.01%

Explanation:

If interest rate increase by 2%

then the YTM of the bond will be 9.3%

We need eto calcualte the present value of  the coupon and maturity of the bond at this new rate:

<em><u>For the coupon payment we use the formula for ordinary annuity</u></em>

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

Coupon payment: 1,000 x 7.3% / 2 payment per year: 36.50

time 6 (3 years x 2 payment per year)

YTM seiannual: 0.0465 (9.3% annual /2 = 4.65% semiannual)

36.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0465)^{-6} }{0.0465} = PV\\

PV $187.3546

<u><em>For the maturity we calculate usign the lump sum formula:</em></u>

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity: $ 1,000.00

time: 6 payment

rate: 0.0465

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0465)^{6} } = PV  

PV   761.32

Now, we add both together:

PV coupon $187.3546 + PV maturity  $761.3154 = $948.6700

now we calcualte the change in percentage:

948.67/1,000 - 1 = -0.051330026 = -5.13

For Dave we do the same:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 36.50

time 40

rate 0.0465

36.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0465)^{-40} }{0.0465} = PV\\

PV $657.5166

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   40.00

rate  0.0465

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0465)^{40} } = PV  

PV   162.34

PV c $657.5166

PV m  $162.3419

Total $819.8585

Change:

819.86 / 1,000 - 1 = -0.180141521 = -18.01%

6 0
3 years ago
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