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inessss [21]
3 years ago
11

On January 1, 2016, Learned, Inc., issued $70 million face amount of 20-year, 14% stated rate bonds when market interest rates w

ere 16%. The bonds pay interest semi-annually each June 30 and December 31 and mature on December 31, 2035.
REQUIRED:
A) Using the present value tables, calculate the proceeds (issue price) of Learned, Inc.’s bonds on January 1, 2016, assuming that the bonds were sold to provide a market rate of return to the investor.
B) Assume instead that the proceeds were $72,400,000. Use the horizontal model (or write the journal entry) to record the payment of semi-annual interest and the related premium amortization on June 30, 2016, assuming that the premium of $2,400,000 is amortized on a straight-line basis.
C) If the premium in PART B were amortized using the compound interest method, would interests expense for the year ended December 31, 2016 be more than, less than, or equal to the interest expense reported using the straightline method of premium amortization? Explain.
D) In reality, the difference between the stated interest rate and the market rate would be substantially less than 2% . The dramatic difference in the problem was designed so that you could use present value tables to answer PART A. What causes the stated rate to be different from the market rate, and why is the difference likely to be much less than depicted in the problem?
Business
1 answer:
Fudgin [204]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A) $61,654,600

B) June 30, 2016, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 4,840,000

Dr Premium on bonds payable 60,000

    Cr Cash 4,900,000

C) If you use the effective interest rate, the bond premium is higher, so the actual interest expense would be lower:

June 30, 2016, first coupon payment

Dr Interest expense 4,756,406

Dr Premium on bonds payable 143,594

    Cr Cash 4,900,000

D) The actual difference between the coupon rate and the effective interest rate (with a $72,400,000 issue price) = 14% (coupon rate) - 13.93% = 0.07%.

The bond's issue price is generally determined by the market rate, but sometimes a company might believe that the interest rate applicable to them is actually different. A company might under estimate the riskiness of their operations, but the market doesn't. Generally the market rate is correct. So any variation in the coupon rate is due to a mistake by the firm. Usually companies do not make huge mistakes, if they miss on the coupon rate it generally is not significant.

Explanation:

issued $70 million face amount of 20-year, 14% stated rate bonds when market interest rates were 16%. The bonds pay interest semi-annually each June 30 and December 31, each coupon = $4,900,000

bonds market price = PV of maturity value + PV of coupons

  • PV of maturity value = $70,000,000 x 0.04603 = $3,222,100
  • PV of coupons = $4,900,000 x (8% annuity, 40 periods) = $4,900,000 x 11.925 = $58,432,500
  • total issue price = $61,654,600

if instead the issue price was $72,400,000 (resulting in a $2,400,000 premium), then the premium would be amortized by $2,400,000 / 40 = $60,000 during each coupon payment

if the effective interest method, (not the compound interest method), was used to amortize bond premium, then we first need to calculate the effective interest rate:

$72,400,000 - $70,000,000 = $2,400,000 / 40 = $60,000

$4,900,000 + $60,000 = $4,960,000 / {($72,400,000 + $70,000,000) / 2} = 0.0696629

bond premium discount using effective interest rate = ($72,400,000 x 0.0696629) - $4,900,000 = $5,043,594 - $4,900,000 = $143,594

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At the profit-maximizing level of output
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

Explanation:

The profit-maximizing level of output for every type of firm is reached when the marginal revenue of production equals the marginal cost meaning that the additional cost of selling one more unit equals the cost of producing one more unit.

Marginal costs vary according to changes in production. Because of that, managers must identify when those events happen to calculate the profit margin (percentage sales that are converted into profits) of the firm to avoid losses.

5 0
3 years ago
How is goodwill calculated? A. The amount paid to purchase a business in excess of the market value of its net assets. B. An est
kondaur [170]

Answer:

Goodwill is calculated as A. The amount paid to purchase a business in excess of the market value of its net assets.

Explanation:

Goodwill is the quantification of the value of the name or reputation of a business. It is an intangible asset for the business that arises and is recorded as part of a business's value when it is sold. Goodwill is the additional amount paid by the buyer in excess of the amount that a business's tangible net assets are worth. Thus, goodwill can be calculated as the amount paid in to purchase a business in excess of the market value of its net assets.

For example, If a business is purchased for $100 whose net assets, which are Total assets less total liabilities, are worth $80. Then the goodwill is the $20 that is the difference of the amount paid to purchase the business and the value of its net assets.

8 0
3 years ago
The current price of the common stock of Internet Enterprises is $100. Over the course of a year, the stock's price will either
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Current value of this newly issued option on Internet Enterprises= $25

Explanation:

Risk free rate for 6 month or period 1= (1000-909.09)/909.09=10%

Risk free rate for 1 year= (1000-826.45)/826.45=21%

Hence, risk free rate for period 2= (1+21%)/(1+10%)-1=10%

Now, Risk free rate factor for period 1 (R1)=1+10%=1.1

Risk Free rate factor for period 2 (R2)=1+10%=1.1

Upward price factor for a period(u)=(1+100%)^(1/2)=1.414

Downward price factor for a period(d)=(1-50%)^(1/2)=0.707

Probability of upward price= (R-d)/(u-d)=(1.1-0.707)/(1.414-0.707)=0.55

Probability of downward price= 1-0.55=0.45

After period 1: Upward price=100*1.414=141.4 with probability 55%

Downward price =100*0.707=70.7 with probability 45%

After period 2:

Upward Price will be =141.4*1.414=200 with probability= 55%*55%=30.25%

Downward price will be=70.7*0.707=50 with probability=45%*45%=20.25%

Mid price will be = 141.4*0.707 or 70.7*1.414=100 with probability =2*45%*55%=49.5%

Now, the highest price the stock can go is $200 with probability 30.25% and it was issued at $100

Hence, expected payoff of the option=30.25%*(200-100)=$30.25

So, current value of the newly issued option= 30.25/(1+21%)=$25

4 0
3 years ago
Consider a bond that costs $1,000 and pays an $80 interest payment each year.
Anna007 [38]

Answer:

The interest rate for this bond is 8% per annum.

Explanation:

Given that,

a bond that costs $1,000 and pays an $80 interest each year.

To find the rate of interest, we use the following formula is

I=Prt

Here P = principal= $1,000

I=interest= $80

t=time= 1 year

∴80 = 1000×r×1

\Rightarrow r=\frac{80}{1000}

⇒r = 0.080

⇒r= 8%

The yield for this bond is 8% per annum.

7 0
3 years ago
Pencil Corp uses the US dollar as its functional currency. The receivable is not hedged. At December 31, 2020 Pencil has the fol
raketka [301]

Answer:

b. $39,000.

Explanation:

Inventory & Fixed assets will be recognized at historic rate.

Accounts receivable will be recognized at closing rate.

Accounts receivable = FC 30,000 * 0.7

Accounts receivable = $21,000

Inventory = FC 20,000 * 0.6

Inventory = $12,000

Fixed assets = FC 10,000 * 0.6

Fixed assets = $6,000

Total = Accounts receivable + Inventory + Fixed assets

Total = $21,000 + $12,000 + $6,000

Total = $39,000

5 0
3 years ago
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