We can use the binomial theorem to find the probability that 0 out of the 15 samples will be defective, given that 20% are defective.
P(0/15) = (15C0) (0.2)^0 (1 - 0.2)^15 = (1)(1)(0.8)^15 = 0.0352
Then the probability that at least 1 is defective is equal to 1 - 0.0352 = 0.9648. This means there is a 96.48% chance that at least 1 of the 15 samples will be found defective. This is probably sufficient, though it depends on her significance level. If the usual 95% is used, then this is enough.
7 because the 3 is the coefficient and the x is the variable. The + is the operator so that leaves you the 7
You do 2067 - 86 = 1981 :)
Answer:
It's a horizontal line passing through 4 on the y-axis.
Simply place a ruler at 4 and draw a straight line from left to right, which passing through the number 4.
Answer:
¼, - √15 /2
Step-by-step explanation:
