The answers are 1/3, 2/6, 3/9, 4/12
Answer:
Jose ends up with more money with $59 more than Peter.
Step-by-step explanation:
To determine the amount they will have, you have to use the formula to calculate the future value:
FV=PV(1+r)^n
FV= future value
PV= present value
r= rate of interest
n= number of periods of time
-Peter:
FV=1,000*(1+0.04)^10
FV=1,000*1.48
FV=1,480
-Jose:
FV=900*(1+0.05)^11
FV=900*1.71
FV=1,539
Difference: $1,539-$1,480=$59
According to this, the answer is that Jose ends up with more money with $59 more than Peter.
The first part of the question is not needed
we only need to know M1 and M2
(y2-y1)^2+(x2-x1)^2=(your answer)^2
(5-16)^2+(-3-2)^2=(your answer)^2
(-11)^2+(-5)^2=(your answer)^2
121+25=(your answer)^2
146=(your answer)^2
√146=12.0830459735945721
nearest tenth=12.1
Answer:
10 in
Step-by-step explanation:
There are two ways to work this problem, and they give different answers. The reason for that is that <em>the data shown in the diagram is not consistent</em>.
<u>Method 1</u>
Use the area to determine the base length. The area formula is ...
A = (1/2)bh
20 in^2 = (1/2)(b)(4 in)
(20 in^2)/(2 in) = b = 10 in
The missing side dimension is 10 inches.
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<u>Method 2</u>
Use the Pythagorean theorem to find the parts of the base, then add them up.
Left of the "?" we have ...
left^2 +4^ = 6^
left^2 = 36 -16 = 20
left = √20 = 2√5
Right of the "?" we have ...
right^2 +4^2 = 8^2
right^2 = 64 -16 = 48
right = √48 = 4√3
So, the base length is ...
base = left + right = 2√5 +4√3
base ≈ 11.400 in
The missing side dimension is 11.4 inches. (The area is 22.8 in^2.)
