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9966 [12]
2 years ago
8

The standard direct labor cost per unit for a company was $24 (= $15 per hour × 1.6 hours per unit). During the period, actual d

irect labor costs amounted to $145,600, 9,500 labor-hours were worked, and 6,600 units were produced. Required: Compute the direct labor price and efficiency variances for the period. (Indicate the effect of each variance by selecting "F" for favorable, or "U" for unfavorable. If there is no effect, do not select either option.)
Business
1 answer:
pentagon [3]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$3,135 unfavorable

$9,937.50 unfavorable

Explanation:

The formula and the computation of the direct labor price and efficiency variance is shown below:

Direct labor price variance

= (Standard rate - Actual rate) × Actual hours of production

= ($15- $145,600 ÷ 9,500 hours )  × 9,500 labor hour worked

= ($15 - $15.33) × 9,500 labor hour worked

= $3,135 unfavorable

Labor efficiency variance is

= (Actual production - standard production) × standard rate per unit

= (6,600 units - 9,500 hours ÷ 1.6 hours) × $15

= (6,600 units - 5,937.0) × $15

= $9,937.50 unfavorable

Since the actual hours is  more than the standard one so it would lead to unfavorable variance

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If the discount rate is 21% and the steady growth rate after 3 years is 2%, what should the stock price be today
jonny [76]

<u>Complete Question:</u>

Tattletale News Corp. has been growing at a rate of 20% per year, and you expect this growth rate in earnings and dividends to continue for another 3 years.

a. If the last dividend paid was $10, what will the next dividend be? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

Dividend  $

b. If the discount rate is 21% and the steady growth rate after 3 years is 2%, what should the stock price be today? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

Stock price  $

Answer:

Requirement A. $12 per share

Requirement B. $44.14 per share

Explanation:

Requirement A.

The next dividend can be calculated using the following equation:

Next Dividend = D0 * (1 + g)

Here

D0 is the current dividend which is $10 and g is the Growth Rate which is 20% for the first three years

By putting values, we have:

Next Dividend = $10 * (1 + 20%)

= $12 per share

Requirement B.

Year  Dividend  Growth Rate  New Dividend

1               10                      20%           12

2               12                      20%                 14.40

3                 14.4                     20%         17.28

4            17.28                    2%                   17.63

Stock Price = $17.63 * (1 + 2%) / (21% - 2%) = $94.62

The above stock price calculated is the value of stock at the end of year 4. To discount it back to year zero, we will discount it by 21%.

Stock price at year0 = $94.62 / (1 + 21%)^4 = $44.14 per share

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is not an appropriate member of an audit committee?
Naya [18.7K]
It’s B, have a good day☀️
7 0
3 years ago
Company A uses an accelerated depreciation method while Company B uses the straight-line method. All other things being equal, d
babymother [125]

Answer:

d. A larger fixed assets turnover ratio and a larger gain on asset disposal

Explanation:

Accelerated depreciation is a method of depreciation whereby the book value of an asset is rapidly depreciated or reduced i.e at an accelerated rate.

This method usually minimizes taxable income in the initial years as a higher amount of depreciation is claimed.

Fixed assets turnover ratio refers to what percentage of net sales is attributable to an entity's fixed assets. It is expressed as:

\frac{Net\ Sales}{Average\ Fixed\ Assets}

Gain on sale of asset disposal = Sale value - Book Value

Book Value =  Cost less accumulated depreciation till date

As can be seen, Average fixed assets balance would reduce thereby increasing fixed assets turnover ratio.

Similarly, due to higher depreciation charged, Book Value would be comparatively less, which would lead to larger gain on assets disposal in the initial years.

5 0
3 years ago
Cal has a choice between two gambles. The first gamble offers a 50 percent chance of winning $20 and a 50 percent chance of losi
Ber [7]

Answer:

The second gamble has the higher expected value. EV = 4

Explanation:

In betting, expected value can be defined as (Amount won per bet * probability of winning) – (Amount lost per bet * probability of losing)

For the first gamble:

EV=(0.5*20) - (0.5*20) = 0

For the second gamble:

EV= (0.2*100) - (0.8*20) = 4

This means that Cal is expected to earn $4 for each $20 waged on the second gamble while he is expected to break even in the first gamble.

Therefore, the second gamble has the higher expected value.

4 0
3 years ago
Garfield Company has the following information for the current​ year: Beginning fixed manufacturing overhead in inventory $230,0
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

the difference between operating incomes under absorption costing and variable​ costing is $180,000 .

Explanation:

The difference between the two Operating Incomes lies in the amount of Fixed Overheads that has been deferred in Inventory.

So, calculation of the difference will be as follows :

Beginning fixed manufacturing overhead in inventory              $230,000

Less Ending fixed manufacturing overhead in inventory           ($50,000)

Difference  between  absorption costing and variable​ costing $180,000

3 0
3 years ago
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