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arsen [322]
3 years ago
15

A currency speculator expects the spot rate of British Pounds (GBP) to change from $2.00 to $2.20 in 6-months. Assume the specul

ator has access to credit lines of USD 20,000,000 in the US and GBP 10,000,000 in UK. The annual borrowing and lending rates are 6 percent in US and 4 percent in UK. In order for the speculator to take advantage from the expected spot rate change in GBP, it should
Business
1 answer:
Vedmedyk [2.9K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Borrow in dollars then at spot rate convert money to british pound. Invest in the pounds for half a year and convert back to dollars.

Explanation:

Access to credit = $20000000

We do a conversion to pounds

= 20000000/2

= £10000000

When this is invested for 6 months

10000000 x 1 +4% x6/12

= 10000000(1+0.04*0.5)

= 10000000x1.02

= 10200000

We then make a conversion back to dollars

10200000 x 2.2

= 22,440,000 dollars

Loan to be repaid

20000000(1+6%x6/12)

= 20000000 x 1 +0.06*0.5

= 20000000 x 1.03

= 20,600,000

Then arbitrage profit = 22440000 - 20600000

= 1840000

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Answer: B. a 2 point capital gain

Explanation:

Municipal Bonds have to be amortized using the straight-line method and this applied to both newly issued or bonds being traded at a premium.

The bond in question is trading at 105 and so has a 5 point premium which needs to be amortized at 1 point a year for 5 years. As it was bought after two years, the amortization was 2 points which means the cost of the bond should be;

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Answer:

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