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alisha [4.7K]
3 years ago
10

A perfectly elastic demand curve implies that the firm: A) must lower price to sell more output. B) can sell as much output as i

t chooses at the existing price. C) realizes an increase in total revenue which is less than product price when it sells an extra unit. D) is selling a differentiated (heterogeneous) product.
Business
1 answer:
dsp733 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A perfectly elastic demand curve means that the firm can sell as much output as it chooses at the current price.

Explanation:

The perfectly elastic demand implies that the demand curve is horizontal line parallel to the X axis. The price is fixed at a point and the firm can sell any amount of output at this point. The demand is infinite at the given price level. If the firm makes any changes in this price level, the demand will become zero.

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Granny Gums has established a scholarship at the Martin College of Dentistry. She will make deposits into an endowment account t
OleMash [197]

Answer:

<u>Scholarship Amount would be $45.68</u>

Explanation:

Deposits into an endowment account that pays 12% per year

Year 0 Deposit $100

Year 1 Deposit $90

Year 2 Deposit $80

Year 3 Deposit $70

Year 4 Deposit $60

Year 5 Deposit $50

Year 6 Deposit $40  

First find the present worth of the gradient deposits.  

P = 100 + 90(P/A, 12%, 6) - 10(P/G, 12%, 6) = $380.69  

A = 380.69 (0.12)

A= $45.68

3 0
3 years ago
Under absorption costing a company had the following per unit costs when 10,000 units were produced. Direct labor $ 2 Direct mat
Rudiy27

Answer: Total product cost per unit if 12,500 units = $13.

Explanation:

Given that,

Direct labor = $2

Direct material = $3

Variable overhead = $4

Total variable cost = $9

Fixed overhead ($50,000/10,000 units) = $5

Total product cost per unit = $14

Fixed Overhead at 12500 units = \frac{50000}{12500} = $4

∴  Total product cost per unit if 12,500 units = Total variable cost per unit + Fixed Overhead at 12500 units

= 9 + 4

= $13

6 0
3 years ago
_________________ are the most restrictive of the restrictions in place for the land's use.
valkas [14]

Developer's Covenants are the most restrictive of the restrictions in place for the land's use.

What developers use restrictive covenants for?

Restrictive covenants are frequently used by land developers to divide the land for residential complexes. After platting the subdivision into lots, blocks, and roadways, a property developer will put some restrictions on how the lots in the development can be used.

Do restrictive covenants expire?

Only after a covenant has been broken for at least a year without receiving any complaints is it possible to purchase restrictive covenant indemnity insurance. However, if purchased, the policy will endure forever and can frequently be transferred to new owners of the property.

Learn more about restrictive covenants: brainly.com/question/18523077

#SPJ4

6 0
1 year ago
On December 28, I. Greasy Catering Company completed $600 of catering services. As of December 31, the customer had not been bil
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

a. Debit Accounts receivable for $600

Explanation:

As Greasy catering company provided services but had not got the bill from the customer, it increases an asset. According to the revenue recognition principle, revenue has recognized whenever it is provided not when the cash is received. In that case, the journal entry to record the transaction is -

Accounts receivable (Debit) $600

Revenue (Catering)  (Credit) $600

Accounts receivable is debit because the company owes the amount from the  customers.

8 0
3 years ago
ExxonMobil has historically had a very low debt-to-equity ratio within the oil industry, but it recently issued $12 billion in n
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

The WACC before bond issuance is 3.9% and the WACC after bond issuance is 3.71%

Explanation:

In order to calculate the WACC before bond issuance , we would have to calculate first the cost of equity  using capital asset pricing model .

So Using CAPM we have Rf + Beta x Market risk premium

= 0.5% + 0.85 * 4%

= 3.9% . cost of equity

Therefore WACC before bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)

= 3.9% . WACC before bond issuance will be equal to cost of equity in this case as there is no debt issue.

In order to calculate the WACC after bond issuance  we make the following calculation:

WACC after bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)

= (3.9% x 0.9) + (2% x 0.1)

= 3.51% + 0.2%

= 3.71%

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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