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DanielleElmas [232]
3 years ago
8

A jeweler can potentially use two inputs in her handcrafted jewelry: copper or bronze. She finds that when she minimizes her cos

ts, she either uses copper or bronze but not both. This means that copper and bronze are perfect substitutes and that her isoquant curve is right-angled.
Business
1 answer:
stiks02 [169]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: straight lines that are parallel to each other

Explanation: Q: A jeweler can potentially use two inputs in her handcrafted jewelry: copper or bronze. She finds that when she minimizes her costs, she either uses copper or bronze but not both. What must her isoquants look like?

An isoquant curve is defined as a line of equal or constant economic production on a graph, chart or map which describes all the combinations of inputs that produce the same level of output. If the jeweler either uses copper or bronze but not both, it means that the copper and bronze are perfect substitutes, that is,  they are two inputs that can be substituted for each other at a constant rate and at the same time maintaining the same output level. Her isoquants would appear as straight lines that are parallel to each other because all that matters is the sum of the two variables (copper and bronze), and not their individual values.

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Answer:

Explanation:

a)

In  the case of forwarding hedge:

The future dollar cost will be = FX receiveable ÷ Foward exchange rate

= 500 million yen ÷ 110 yen/dollar

= $4.55 million

For money market hedge:

Present value of yen payable = 500 \ yen \div (1+ \dfrac{5}{100})

= \dfrac{500 \ yen }{1.06}

= 476.20 million yen

PCC would convert dollars to yens at the spot market rate and borrow yen such that it would get 500 million yen at maturity(i.e after one year)  for Mitsubishi to receive it.

Dollars needed to get these yen = 476.30 yen  ÷ 124 yen/dollar

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Future Value of these dollars (for comparison with the foward market hedge) = $3.84 × (1 + 0.08)

= $4.15 million

Hence, the money market hedge is better as the dollar cost is lower than the forward market hedge to meet the obligation.

b)

On the maturity date, the spot rate is 110 yen/dollar  

Ad the strike price = 0.0081 /dollar

It is better for the company to go for the strike price due to the fact that it has a lower rate than the spot rate.

Now;

The premium amount = 500000000 yen × 0.014 dollar / yen

= 70000 dollars

However; the Future dollar-cost payable = 500000000 yen × 0.0081 dollar /yen

= 4050000 dollars

By applying option hedge, the total dollar cost required to meet the obligation = (4050000 + 70000) dollars

= 4120000 dollars

c)

The dollar cost needed from the option hedge required to matching the forward hedge is determined by subtracting it from the premium amount:

Thus;

for option hedge, dollar cost needed = (4550000 - 70000) dollars

= 4480000 dollars

The required future spot rate = 500000000/4480000

= 111.61 yen/dollar

As a result, at the future spot rate of 111.61 yen/dollar, PCC will be unconcerned about and indifferent about the option or forward hedge because the future dollar cost of meeting the obligation will be the same.

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Answer:

C. Both A and B

Explanation:

Operation Costing:

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This means the materials are calculate with calculate with process costing. And then there is a degree of customization which makes the job costing useful.

(A) FALSE is the other way around. The system use process costing until split point, when it switch to job costing for specific procedures.

(B) FALSE

An automobile manufacturer do the same car over and over.

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Because of its effect on the amount of capital per worker, in the short term an increase in the working population is likely to
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Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": reduce productivity. Other things the same, this decrease will be larger in a poor country.

Explanation:

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Answer:

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The adjustment to record Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts:

Debit Bad debts expense $9,600

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