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astra-53 [7]
3 years ago
7

50 POINTS TO WHOEVER HELPS WITH THIS I NEED IT ASAP PLEASE HELP

Mathematics
1 answer:
Tresset [83]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

<em>4a ) Difference ⇒ $ 63.24,</em>

<em>4b ) 4 children</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

4a ) If the number of children is represented by the value of x, let us substitute a family of 2 children as value of x into this equation we are given;

y = 21.08 * ( 2 ) + 85.15 ⇒ Multiply 21.08 by 2,

y = 42.16 + 85.15 ⇒ Combine like terms,

y = 127.31

If y ⇒ amount spent on grocery's, let us solve for the amount spent on 5 children, and subtract from this amount;

y = 21.08 * ( 5 ) + 85.15 ⇒ Multiply 21.08 by 5,

y = 105.4 + 85.15 ⇒ Combine like terms,

y = 190.55

Difference; 190.55 - 127.31 = 63.24,

<em>Solution; Difference ⇒ $ 63.24</em>

4b ) If the amount is $ 169.47, let us plug it into our given equation provided amount spent on groceries ⇒ y;

169.47 = 21.08x + 85.15 ⇒ Subtract 85.15 from either side of equation,

21.08x = 84.32 ⇒ Divide either side 21.08,

x = 4 children

<em>Solution; 4 children</em>

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Answer:

x = 14.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Use Law of Sines.

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x = 14.72

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

  1. f : X \rightarrow Y is surjective implies there exists a function h : Y \rightarrow X such that  f\circ h = 1_Y.
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Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function f : X \rightarrow Y is surjective. From this we know that for every y\in Y there exist, at least, one x\in X such that y=f(x).

Now, define the sets X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}. Notice that the set X_y is the pre-image of the element y. Also, from the fact that f is a function we deduce that X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset, and because  f the sets X_y are no empty.

From each set X_y  choose only one element x_y, and notice that f(x_y)=y.

So, we can define the function h:Y\rightarrow X as h(y)=x_y. It is no difficult to conclude that f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y. With this we have that f\circ h=1_Y, and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function  h:Y\rightarrow X  such that f\circ h=1_Y.

Take an element y\in Y, then f\circ h(y)=y. Now, write x=h(y) and notice that x\in X. Also, with this we have that f(x)=y.

So, for every element y\in Y we have found that an element x\in X (recall that x=h(y)) such that y=f(x), which is equivalent to the fact that f is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

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It would be a lease.
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Can you answer this question?​
Debora [2.8K]

Answer: y= 3 times 2 to the power x. Second answer

Step-by-step explanation:

if you plug in 0 for x, y= 3x 1= 3

if you plug in 1 for x y= 3 x 2 = 6

Look at the x values and y values

(0,3) and (1, 6) on the graph. It matches answer number 2. Remember, 2 raised to the power 0 = 1 and 3 times 1 = 3. And 2 raised to the power 1 =2 and 3 times 2 = 6.

3 0
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