Answer: x=0.25
Step-by-step explanation: 1−8x=−16x2
Simplify both sides of the equation.
−8x+1=−16x2
Subtract -16x^2 from both sides.
−8x+1−−16x2=−16x2−−16x2
16x2−8x+1=0
16x2+−8x+1=0
Use quadratic formula with a=16, b=-8, c=1.
x=
−b±√b2−4ac
2a
x=
−(−8)±√(−8)2−4(16)(1)
2(16)
x=
8±√0
32
x=0.25
Answer:
R = 3
Step-by-step explanation:
8595 / 24 = 358.125
24 * 358 = 8568
8595 - 8592 = 3
The answer you are looking for is -5
Answer:
-(5 n + 6)
Step-by-step explanation:
Simplify the following:
-4 (n + 1) - (n + 2)
-4 (n + 1) = -4 n - 4:
-4 n - 4 - (n + 2)
-(n + 2) = -n - 2:
-4 - 4 n + -n - 2
Grouping like terms, -4 - 4 n - 2 - n = (-4 n - n) + (-4 - 2):
(-4 n - n) + (-4 - 2)
-4 n - n = -5 n:
-5 n + (-4 - 2)
-4 - 2 = -(4 + 2):
-5 n + -(4 + 2)
4 + 2 = 6:
-5 n - 6
Factor -1 out of -5 n - 6:
Answer: -(5 n + 6)
Answer:
The correct answer is A) 4/663.
Step-by-step explanation:
First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.
Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king of clubs) in a deck of cards, the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.
Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,
4/52 x 4/51 =
4 x 4/52 x 51 =
16/2652
Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:
16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and
2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.
So, the final answer is 4/663.
