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ivolga24 [154]
2 years ago
15

Fort Smith Technologies incurred the following costs during the past year when planned production and actual production each tot

aled 20,000 units: Direct material used $ 280,000 Direct labor 120,000 Variable manufacturing overhead 160,000 Fixed manufacturing overhead 100,000 Variable selling and administrative cost 60,000 Fixed selling and administrative cost 90,000 If Fort Smith uses absorption costing, the total inventoriable costs for the year would be: Multiple Choice $660,000. $560,000. $460,000. $620,000. $400,000.
Business
1 answer:
Scilla [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$560,000

Explanation:

Calculation for the total inventoriable costs for the year would be

Using this formula

Variable costing = Direct materials + Direct labor + Variable Manufacturing Overhead

Let plug in the formula

Variable costing= $280,000 + $120,000 + $160,000

Variable costing= $560,000

Therefore the total inventoriable costs for the year would be $560,000

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Innovation and enterprise can help to develop new and niche markets - True or False?
umka21 [38]

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

A radical innovation also known as the disruptive innovation is an innovative approach aimed at destroying or supplanting old business strategies and models with an invention to breakthrough and change the whole industries by creating new products.

Hence, an innovation and enterprise can help to develop new and niche markets as the business would be starting afresh and offering new products and services to meet the unending needs or requirements of its customers.

3 0
3 years ago
Bonita earns $31,000 from her job, and she has $1,000 of interest income. She has itemized deductions of $35,000. There are no c
andrezito [222]

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

Bonita is a person, not a company, therefore she cannot record operating losses. This is a not a common situation since you generally don't have more deductions than gross income, but it is a possible situation. For example, if Bonita had a lot of medical expenses during the last year and they accumulated to actually more than her salary. She may have paid them using her savings, selling some assets or by obtaining a loan.

4 0
3 years ago
A​ 20% increase in sales causes EPS to rise from​ $4.00 to​$6.50. Assuming the firm has no​ debt, what is its degree of operatin
Anna [14]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

DOL =  Percentage change in EBIT / percentage change in sales

EPS = {(EBIT - Interest) × (1 - T) } / Shares

The firm has no debt, so interest would be zero

EPS = EBIT × (1 - T) / Shares.

Tax rate and number of outstanding shares remain unchanged.

Percentage Change in EPS = EBIT.

Percentage Change in EPS = (6.5 / 4) - 1 = 0.625 = 62.5%

EBIT = 62.5%

Percentage change in sales= 20%

DOL =  62.5% / 20% =  3.13

5 0
3 years ago
the republic of south africa exports edible fruits and nuts into the common market known as the european union, and imports from
Leno4ka [110]

The republic of south Africa exports edible fruits and nuts into the common market known as the European union, and imports from the European union other products which south Africa could produce but at a higher cost than what it costs the Europeans to produce. this practice follows the theory of comparative advantage.

Comparative gain is an economic system's potential to supply a specific proper or provider at a reduced possibility rate than its buying and selling partners. Comparative benefit is used to provide an reason for why organizations, countries, or people can benefit from trade.

For instance, if a country is skilled at making each cheese and chocolate, they will decide how much tough work is going into producing each right. If it takes one hour of exertions to produce 10 devices of cheese and one in each of of tough paintings to deliver 20 devices of chocolate, then this united states has a comparative benefit in making chocolate.

Comparative advantage, monetary precept, first developed via 19th-century British economist David Ricardo, that attributed the reason and advantages of global alternate to the variations within the relative possibility costs (prices in phrases of other objects given up) of producing the same commodities amongst global locations.

Learn more about Comparative advantage here: brainly.com/question/15361275

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5 0
11 months ago
Casey Nelson is a divisional manager for Pigeon Company. His annual pay raises are largely determined by his division’s return o
baherus [9]

Answer:

NPV: $180,285.49

IRR: 21.336%

simple rate of return: 72.13%

Explanation:

6,100,000 investment

contribution margin 3,000,000

fixed expense:       <u>     900,000  </u>

EBITA                         2,100,000

We will calculate the NPV without the depreciation, as the depreciation is the distribution of the investment cost over the project life.

If we include the depreciation we will be counting the investment amount twice. Entirely at Time 0  and then subtracting on each cash inflow.

We will calculate the NPV at 20% as is the company's discount rate. Even if the current division returns are in 24% as the company accepts project which yields 20%.

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 2,100,000

time 5 years

rate 20% = 20/100 = 0.2

2100000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.2)^{-5} }{0.2} = PV\\

PV $6,280,285.49

NPV = PV of cash inflow - investment

6,280,285.49 - 6,100,000 = 180,285.49

<u>the IRR:</u>

The internal rate of return is the rate at which the NPV of a priject is zero.

We calculate this using excel formula IRR

or a financial calculator

it could also be done with trial and error using the PV tables.

<u>I will explain you in Excel</u>

FIrst, you write the inflow and outflow per year:

-6,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

then we write on another cell:

=IRR(

then, select the cells

and press enter

21.336%

<u>the simple rate of return:</u>

(total return - investment) / investment

(2,100,000 x 5 - 6,100,000) / 6,100,000 =

4,400,000 / 6,100,000 = 0.721311475 = 72.13%

7 0
3 years ago
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