Okay so to answer your problem. All you need to do is plug in the values that you know to a calculator.. so that would be 24,500(1+.05)^2.5
this equation equals 27,678.29. But it states in the beginning, only the money he has made on it... so you would subtract the initial $24,500 which would leave you with D 3178.29
Hope this Helps!
There are 20- 5 point questions and 10-2 point questions
hope this helps!
Answer:
184.36
Step-by-step explanation:
If you times 40×45=1760 so you have to times 4.19×44= The answer/ 184.36
Beta= 1.3
Debt to equity ratio= 0.4
Market rate of return= 11.6%
= 11.6/100
= 0.116
Tax rate= 32%
= 32/100
= 0.32
Risk free rate= 3.3%
= 3.3/100
= 0.033
Pretax cost of debt= 7.2%
= 7.2/100
= 0.072
The firm's WACC can be calacluated as follows
RS= 0.033+1.3(0.116-0.033)
= 0.033+1.3(0.083)
= 0.033+0.1079
= 0.1409
WACC= (1/1.4)(0.1409)+(2/1.4) (0.072)(1-0.32)
= (0.7142)(0.1409) + (1.4285)(0.072)(0.68)
= 0.1006+0.0699
= 0.1705(100)
= 17.05%
Hence the firm's WACC is 17.05%
-47=97 hopefully this helped u