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tatuchka [14]
3 years ago
15

Hardy Inc. has two operating departments (1 and 2) and is considering renting a new machine to help automate the printing proces

s. The normal rental for the machine is $25/hour, but for rentals that exceed 1,000 hours the rental rate drops to $22/hour. Operating Dept 1 needs the machine for 300 hours. Operating Dept 2 needs the machine for 900 hours. If Hardy uses the incremental method and Operating Department 2 is the primary user, how much of the cost will be allocated to Department 1
Business
1 answer:
gayaneshka [121]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$6,900

Explanation:

When you use the incremental cost allocation method, you must rank cost activities and how they will be allocated. In this case, department 2 is the primary user, and therefore, rental costs must be allocated first to them. Rental costs will be allocated at a $25/hour rate.

Since department 1 is the next user, 100 hours will be allocated using the same rate as department 2, but the next 200 hours will be allocated at the lower $22/hour rate. Total rental cost allocation to department 1 = (100 x $25) + (200 x $22) = $2,500 + $4,400 = $6,900

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Jacob Corcoran bought 10,000 shares of Grebe Corporation stock two years ago for $24,000. Last year, Jacob received a nontaxable
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

Jacob purchased 10000 shares form Grebe corporation two years ago for $24000

last year Jacob received a non taxable stock dividend of 2000 shares from Grebe corporation

In the current year tax year Jacob sold all stock received as dividend that's 2000 shares for $18000

The gain of the sale of 2000 shares can be calculated by subtracting the basis in the shares from the cost price. the cost of shares = ( $24000 / 12000 ) = $2 per share

profit made from the sales of 2000 shares is calculated as follows ; selling price ( $18000 ) - cost price of 2000 shares ( $2 * 2000) , the profit is $14000 and it is in the long term because the original shares bought has been held for at least 1 year

Explanation:

Jacob purchased 10000 shares form Grebe corporation two years ago for $24000

last year Jacob received a non taxable stock dividend of 2000 shares from Grebe corporation

In the current year tax year Jacob sold all stock received as dividend that's 2000 shares for $18000

The gain of the sale of 2000 shares can be calculated by subtracting the basis in the shares from the cost price. the cost of shares = ( $24000 / 12000 ) = $2 per share

profit made from the sales of 2000 shares is calculated as follows ; selling price ( $18000 ) - cost price of 2000 shares ( $2 * 2000) , the profit is $14000 and it is in the long term because the original shares bought has been held for at least 1 year

8 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP ME PLEASE!!! WORTH 100 POINTS
tatiyna

Answer:

12*48=$576,000,000,000

Explanation:

12 times 48=$576,000,000

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
John Daniel opened a medical practice in Sacramento, California, and had the following transactions during the month of January.
spayn [35]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

1. Cash A/c Dr $34,000

       To Common stock A/c $34,000

(Being the cash is received in exchange of common stock)

2. Medical supplied A/c Dr $17,000

          To Account payable A/c $17,000

(Being the medical supplies are purchased on account)

3. Cash A/c Dr $1,600

        To Service Revenue A/c $1,600

(Being the cash is received for service performed)

4. Office Rent Expenses A/c Dr $3,000

           To Cash A/c $3,000

(Being the office rent expense is paid for cash)

5. Accounts Receivable A/c Dr $7,000

            To Service revenue A/c $7,000

(Being the service revenue is recorded)

4 0
3 years ago
World Company expects to operate at 80% of its productive capacity of 66,250 units per month. At this planned level, the company
Gnom [1K]

Answer:

Overhead volume variance = $3,000 Unfavorable

Overhead controllable variance = $26,500 unfavorable

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

a)

Number of units produced = 80% × 66,250

= 53,000  units

Standard = 26,500 hours ÷ 53,000 units

= 0.5 direct labor hour per unit

Particulars                        a                 b               Direct labor hour(a ÷ b)

Variable overhead rate $331,250      26,500        $12.5 per hour

Fixed overhead rate       $53,000       26,500        $2 per hour

Total overhead rate      $384,250                          $15 per hour

The standard hours to produce 50,000 units = 25,000 (50,000 units × 0.50 hours per unit.)

Applied fixed overhead = $2 × 25,000

= $50,000

Overhead fixed volume variance is

= $53,000 - $50,000

= 3,000 unfavorable

Now

b) Standard hour = 50,000 units × 0.5 direct labor hour per unit

= 25,000

Overhead rate(a) Standard hours(b) Applied overhead(a × b) Actual variance

Variable overhead $12.5 25,000 $312,500

Fixed overhead $2 25,000 $50,000

Total overhead $14.5               25,000           $362,500       $389,000

= $362,500 - $389,000

$26,500 unfavorable

If the actual cost is more than the standard one than the variance should be unfavorable and If the actual cost is less than the standard one than the variance should be favorable

6 0
3 years ago
Craig, one of the senior managers at Clayton Inc., insisted that company supervisors handle employee relations as part of their
Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

The supervisors represent the company on a day-to-day basis.

Explanation:

Craig said that the supervisors take employee relations as part of their jobs.

The option that buttresses this is that supervisors represent the company on a day-to-day basis. Meaning the supervisors as owners of the company, and as if they have a stake. Supervisors taking ownership presupposes they perform tasks like handling employee relations to ensure the business and the employee work harmoniously.

5 0
3 years ago
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