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solong [7]
3 years ago
8

The probability that a male professional golfer makes a hole-in-one is 1/2780. Suppose 36 professional male golfers play the six

th hole during a round of golf. Let the random variable X be the number of golfers in the group of 36 who make a hole-in-one. Calculate the probability that exactly four of the 36 golfers make a hole-in-one on the sixth hole – as actually happened during the 1989 U.S. Open
Mathematics
1 answer:
yuradex [85]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The right solution  is "9.7\times 10^{-10}".

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the question,

The probability that male professional golfer makes hole in one will be:

P=\frac{1}{2780}

Number of players,

n = 36

and,

q=1-P=\frac{2779}{2780}

By using the Binomial theorem, we get

⇒ P(x=r) = \binom{n}{r} p^r q^{n-r}

Bu substituting the values, we get

                   =\binom{36}{4} (\frac{1}{2780} )^4 (\frac{2779}{2780} )^{32}

                   =9.74929\times 10^{-10}

or,

                   =9.7\times 10^{-10}

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Answer:

6/x^5-2x-8

Step-by-step explanation:

6 over x-8-3x is

6/x-8-3x/x^-5

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x^-5 can be rewritten as

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6/x^5-2x-8

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A stock was priced at $12 3/8 per share. It rose in price by $3 1/4 per share. What was its new price?
lubasha [3.4K]

Option A

The new price is $ 15 \frac{5}{8}

<h3><u>Solution:</u></h3>

Given that, a stock was priced at $ 12 \frac{3}{8} per share.

It rose in price by $ 3 \frac{1}{4} per share.

New price = old price + rise in price

Thus to find out the new price, we have to add old price and rise in price

\text { So, new price }=\$ 12 \frac{3}{8}+\$ 3 \frac{1}{4}

\text { New price }=\frac{12 \times 8+3}{8}+\frac{3 \times 4+1}{4}

On solving we get,

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4 years ago
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