Answer:
b. $14.7 million
Explanation:
In order to compute the asset retirement obligation, first we have to compute the expected cash flows which are shown below:
= Cash outflows × probability + Cash outflows × probability
= $10 million × 60% + $30 million × 40%
= $6 million + $12 million
= $18 million
Now the asset retirement obligation would be
= (Expected cash flows) ÷ (1 + interest rate)^ number of years
= ($18 million) ÷ (1 + 0.07)^3 years
= ($18 million) ÷ 1.225043
= $14.7 million
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Answer:
The difference between two WACC is 1.2%.
Explanation:
As we know that
WACC = Ke * Ve / (Ve + Vd (1-Tax)) + Kd * Vd*(1-tax) / (Ve + Vd*(1-Tax))
Using the Book Value Method:
WACC = 14% *$65 / ($65m + $45m (1-40%))
+ 6% *$45m*(1-.4) / ($65m + $45m (1-40%))
WACC = 10% + 1.8% = 11.8%
<u>Using the market value method:</u>
Market Value of Common Stock = Common Shares * Market value per share
Market Value of Common Stock = 10 million * $22.5 per share = $225m
WACC = 14% *$225 / ($225m + $50m (1-40%))
+ 6% *$50m*(1-.4) / ($225m + $50m (1-40%))
WACC = 12.35% + 0.7% = 13%
The difference between two WACC is 1.2%.
A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. the glue used in the production process is classified as an indirect material.
What is indirect material?
Even though they are used in the entire manufacturing process, indirect materials do not go into the finished product. For instance, while disposable gloves, PPE, tape, etc. may be necessary for a production line, the actual product produced on that line may not include any of these items.
Therefore,
A manufacturing process requires small amounts of glue. the glue used in the production process is classified as an indirect material.
To learn more about indirect material from the given link:
https://brainly.in/question/2873841
