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Could we get a more specific question? That would be appreciated :D
Jefferson wrote all men are equal which meant that people were born with some inalienable rights like right to live free without being under the control of others.
Although in reality, Thomas Jefferson had many slaves under his control and he had progeny from one of his slaves. That statement proclaimed that every individual has to be included regardless of race, religion or gender.
But when he wrote ‘All men are equal”, he may have not considered women and slaves. It may sound hypocritical but it has taken more than a century to really internalize the meaning of equality.
Answes: The first was Christianity and the Catholic Church (as well as the official language of the Church, Latin). The second was feudalism. The expansion of Catholic Christianity and the feudal system had a profound impact on western Europe in the medieval era.
Explanation: