Answer:
a. $80,318.70
b. $97,568.57
Explanation:
Here is the full question :
You have just received a windfall from an investment you made in a friend's business. She will be paying you $ 15 comma 555 at the end of this year, $ 31 comma 110 at the end of next year, and $ 46 comma 665 at the end of the year after that (three years from today). The interest rate is 6.7 % per year. a. What is the present value of your windfall? b. What is the future value of your windfall in three years (on the date of the last payment)?
Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows
Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator
Cash flow in year 1 = $ 15,555
Cash flow in year 2 = $31,110
Cash flow in year 3 = $ 46,665
I = 6.7%
Present value = $80,318.70
The formula for calculating future value:
FV = P (1 + r)^n
FV = Future value
P = Present value
R = interest rate
N = number of years
$80,318.70(1.067)^3 = $97,568.57
Answer and Explanation:
The journal entries are shown below;
a. Investment Dr $37,282
To Cash $37,282
(being the investment in bonds is recorded)
b.
Cash (($1,000 × $40) × 0.07 × 6 ÷ 12) $1,400
Investment $91
To interest revenue ($37,282 ×8% × 6 ÷ 12) $1,491
(Being the first interest payment is recorded)
Answer:
not satisfying customer needs on critical factors.
Explanation:
In this scenario American companies were supplying more of left hand side cars to Japan. When Japan needed more of the right hand side cars. They ignored the customer needs and instead gave him what he has little use for.
On the other hand Germany supplied Japan the specification of cars that they wanted.
American car manufacturers will be blamed for not satisfying customer needs on critical factor of right hand drive cars.
Answer:
The social media platform with more than 410 million people registered is Linkedin
hope I helped!! :D
Explanation:
Answer:
1. $2.5 million
2. $0
Explanation:
1. Since the book value is more than the generated future cash flows so book value cannot be recovered. In this case, the generated future cash flows are ignored
In this scenario, we compare the values between book value and the fair value of machinery, the difference would be the loss on impairment of the asset
In mathematically,
= Book value - fair value
= $6.5 million - $4.0 million
= $2.5 million
2. In this case, the sum of future cash flows is exceeded than the book value. So, no impairment loss would be recognized i.e zero amount
