1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
pashok25 [27]
3 years ago
14

The U.S. Constitution makes no mention of a right to privacy. Should it be amended to affirm such a right? If so, how should the

amendment read?
pls awnser i need this to pass
History
1 answer:
IrinaK [193]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: As others have noted, the “right to privacy” has virtually no Constitutional textual basis. The Justices in Griswold v Connecticut couldn’t even agree to which parts of the Constitution they could point to, and ended up saying it was some short of vague “penumbra of an emanation” of the Bill of Rights, but couldn’t explain what that meant or on what specific text it was based. The “right of privacy” was concocted out of thin air, in the shadows, by a SCOTUS coterie which wanted to protect people’s right to use contraceptives in their homes, but couldn't find any legitimate Constitutional basis to proclaim such a right. So they made it up. The right action by SCOTUS would have been to acknowledge that the Federal Government has no jurisdiction over contraception or abortion, those not being enumerated to the Federal Government by the Constitution and therefore denied to it by the 10th Amendment. SCOTUS should have sent the matter back to the States and directed all Federal Courts to but out. But it didn’t, leading to all the confusion and controversy that has ensued.

Explanation:

You might be interested in
Why did Henry Tubman travel on Saturdays
Reil [10]
C because they never worked on saturday
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Read the following excerpt from a book written by John Locke. Briefly summarize the passage and explain the impact these ideas h
Margaret [11]
Do you have the opiton
5 0
3 years ago
HOW DOES THE MEXICAN AMERICAN WAR AN EXAMPLE OF MANIFEST DESTINY?
Dima020 [189]

Answer:

Manifest Destiny is the idea that a country has the right or wants to rule the world or a large portion of land. The Mexican American War was fought for control of modern day California, Texas, etc. Even though this was Mexican land, the United States decided to wage war for control of these lands. This is an example of America's spread of territory and power.

Hope it helps!

Brainliest please

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Has anyone taken this 2.11 Correcting an Essay Assignment that can help me? Worth 31 & brainliest if right!!!
Assoli18 [71]
I have taken it before
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why, after Charles II took the throne, did colonization resume for England?
Elodia [21]

Answer:

because he was a good king

Explanation:

google

3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • What act was passed in the late 1800s to exclude to exclude an entire ethnic group?
    5·2 answers
  • Spanish exploration in the Americas increased greatly during the _________.
    5·2 answers
  • Why did people doubt Kennedy would be a good candidate
    8·1 answer
  • Congress passes a bill that will place a tariff on all imports coming into the country. This would be an example of which type o
    14·2 answers
  • What actions prompted John Quincy Adams to write the Monroe doctrine?
    13·2 answers
  • Contributions made by the Greeks include: (Check all that apply).
    14·2 answers
  • Which of the following would be strained by a large increase of population 1 point
    14·1 answer
  • Briefly explain what the Harlem Renaissance was?
    7·1 answer
  • Match the term to its related term.
    5·1 answer
  • How did confucius started teaching the way of life? (In a short summary pls in own words)
    11·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!