Answer:
indefinite pronouns are singular.
Explanation:
The main difference between the greasers<span> and the </span>Socs is that they are from different<span> social classes.</span>
Can you go more into detail about your question? I cant seem to figure out what to answer.
The author did not limit himself to literal language because he knew that figurative language would give more expressiveness and depth to the text.
As you did not show the text to which your question refers, it is not possible to show the use of figurative language in the text, but it is possible to state the reasons that led the author to use this type of language.
In the question above, we can see that the author made use of the simile, a figure of speech that allows the comparison between two elements, increasing the meaning between them.
This objective is very common in authors who use any type of figurative language in their texts. This is because figurative language can:
- Intensify parts of the text.
- Make the text deeper.
- Show more expressiveness.
- Create more impactful meanings.
- Force the reader's thinking.
- Approach topics with greater delicacy, or more aggressiveness.
It is important to emphasize that figurative language does not have a literal meaning of the words, but something more subjunctive, unlike the literal language.
More information on the link:
brainly.com/question/1430277?referrer=searchResults
“Dear friend,
Ive seen you’ve been shopping at a far market across town. However, I personally shop at the one down the street. There food is way fresher and for low prices too! I can’t even imagine how much money you spend in gas going there and back every week. However, you could save that money to buy more food by shopping at the closest market. As a recommendation, let me know what you think!
Sincerely,
your friend
