Answer:
D. banks reliance on long term funding; and increased use of non-standard mortgages such as fixed rate, 30- year mortgages.
Explanation:
Dr. Bernanke argued that financial crisis is due to the banks involving in non standard mortgages which are fixed rate mortgages but they are not regulated. The bank provides loans and mortgages to people based on the standard regulations which need to be followed. They financial crisis took place when the mortgages were provided on non standard terms.
Answer: Exclusive distribution
Explanation:
Exclusive distribution is defined as the agreement in which a parties involved are manufacturer and distributor.It states that the particular distributor cannot sell their service or item to any other party .It binds the agreement that product can be sold to the exclusive distributor.
According to the situation mentioned in the question, designers are asked for exclusive distribution by the retailer.Retailer does not wants that design of jewelry to be sold through any other source or retailer for effective sale.Thus agreement upon this matter is proposed by the retailer.
Answer:
Kindly check attached picture
Explanation:
Given the details below
Accounts Debit Credit
Cash $16,000
Accounts receivable 162,000
Prepaid rent 10,000
Supplies 31,000
Equipment 370,000
Accumulated depreciation $129,000
Accounts payable 11,000
Salaries payable 3,500
Interest payable 1,900
Notes payable (due in two years) 37,000
Common stock 210,000
Retained earnings 176,100
Dividends 27,000
Service revenue 360,000
Salaries expense 150,000
Advertising expense 75,000
Rent expense 18,000
Depreciation expense 32,000
Interest expense 2,500
Utilities expense 35,000
Totals $928,500 $928,500
Prepare an income statement for China Tea Company for the year ended December 31, 2021
Kindly check attached picture
Answer:
D. $0.93
Explanation:
Upmove (U) = High price/current price
= 42/40
= 1.05
Down move (D) = Low price/current price
= 37/40
= 0.925
Risk neutral probability for up move
q = (e^(risk free rate*time)-D)/(U-D)
= (e^(0.02*1)-0.925)/(1.05-0.925)
= 0.76161
Put option payoff at high price (payoff H)
= Max(Strike price-High price,0)
= Max(41-42,0)
= Max(-1,0)
= 0
Put option payoff at low price (Payoff L)
= Max(Strike price-low price,0)
= Max(41-37,0)
= Max(4,0)
= 4
Price of Put option = e^(-r*t)*(q*Payoff H+(1-q)*Payoff L)
= e^(-0.02*1)*(0.761611*0+(1-0.761611)*4)
= 0.93
Therefore, The value of each option using a one-period binomial model is 0.93