Answer:
1/26=4/104
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of pulling a diamond if completely shuffled properly, is a 1/4. Because there are 4 suits. This is only if, there are no jokers.
And the probability of pulling a jack, is a 4/51. Because there are 4 jacks out of the 51 cards, but you already pulled out a diamond card, so you take 1 out.
Multiply them together, and you will get 4/104 = 1/26
There is a 1/26 chance of pulling out a diamond card, then a jack.
Answer:
option 2, 3, and 5
Step-by-step explanation:
Any equation that has an exponent would not be linear
On all of them sorry but if i dont know wich one to do then....
A(15) = 3(15)-7 = 45-7 = 38.
SO, (C)38 IS THE ANSWER.
Answer:
Somebody please answer this
Step-by-step explanation: