Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation:
The nominal exchange rate refers to the rate at which there is a buying and selling of goods and services among the countries. It is the amount of home currency that are needed to purchase a unit of foreign currency.
For example: A resident of India would need 75 Indian rupees to purchase a dollar of United States. Therefore, the nominal exchange rate between the India and the United States is as follows:
1 US dollar = Rs. 75
The thing which usually happens during tight money periods, generally is:
- short-term rates are higher than long-term rates.
<h3>What is a Tight Money Period?</h3>
This refers to an economic policy in which there is the need for control of inflation in the economy by the financial institution in a country.
With this in mind, we can see that when this happens in the tight money periods, there is usually short term rates which are higher than long term rates because there is a need to control the economy which is rising too quickly.
Read more about inflation here:
brainly.com/question/1082634
Answer:
8.5%
Explanation:
The computation of the percentage offer on its commercial paper is presented below:
= Annualized T-bill rates + credit risk premium + liquidity premium
= 8% + 0.3% + 0.2%
= 8% + 0.5%
= 8.5%
In order to determine the percentage offer it would be 8.5% by considering all the percentage rate that is mentioned in the question
The most cost effective way for John to buy a house is on installment basis or by using up all his savings
Answer:
0.536
Explanation:
The computation of the correlation coefficient is shown below:-
Therefore for computing the correlation coefficient between the returns on A and B we simply applied the above formula.
So, according to the question the option is not available. The right answer is 0.536 and the same is not considered
