Answer:
c Claim their expenses as deductions for AGI.
Explanation:
Their costs are specified in Schedule C, not Form 2106 (Option). Although subject to Social Security tax, they are not subject to income tax withholding (option). Legitimate employees are not common law employees (selected). Costs for AGI will be reduced
Answer: Any of these answer choice is correct.
Explanation:
You didn't put the options to the question. The options are:
• There is no remaining obligation to transactions goods.
• The contract has been terminated.
• Goods have been delivered.
• Any of these answer choice is correct.
When consideration has been received before a contract is identified and the consideration is nonrefundable, then the revenue may be recognized when:
• There is no remaining obligation to transactions goods.
• The contract has been terminated.
• Goods have been delivered
Therefore, the correct option is any of the answer choice is correct.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": does not require estimates of bad debt losses.
Explanation:
There are mainly two approaches while recognizing bad debts (unpaid debts): <em>the allowance method </em>and <em>the direct write-off method</em>. Using the allowance method the unpaid account receivable goes through a series of stages until it is recognized as a bad debt. There are no set criteria to do so. When the firm eventually recognizes and calculates the amount of a bad expense, it is recorded in an allowance account. The negative balance diminishes the company's revenue.
The direct write-off method does not generate any allowance account. The account receivable is simply written-off after the company determines the debt as uncollectible. Thus, there is no need to estimate bad debt losses using this approach.
Answer:
The answer is 9.38%
Explanation:
This is a semiannual paying coupon. And it means West Corp pays interest twice a year.
N(Number of periods) = 24 periods ( [14years - 2 years ago] x 2)
I/Y(Yield to maturity) = ?
PV(present value or market price) = $1,030 ( 103% x $1,000)
PMT( coupon payment) = $49 ( [9.8 percent÷ 2] x $1,000)
FV( Future value or par value) = $1,000.
We are using a Financial calculator for this.
N= 24; PV = 1.030; PMT = 49; FV= $1,000; CPT I/Y= 4.69
Therefore, the Yield-to-maturity of the bond for annual is 9.38% (4.69% x 2)