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UNO [17]
3 years ago
15

Supervisor: "He is going to rue missing today's training session." Why would he need to make up for missing today's training ses

sion? Why would he be mad about missing today's training session? Why would he regret missing today's training session? Why would he love missing today's training session? Why would he try missing today's training session?
Business
1 answer:
sergejj [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

He would need to make up for missing today's training session because it is going to be a very important session that will help him a lot to improve his skills.

He would be mad about missing it because he would lose that valuable opportunity to improve his skills, as well as because he would have to make up for missing it.

He would regret missing the session for the same reason.

He tried missing today's session because he had other things on mind, more pressing tasks, the session is valuable but boring, etc.

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When and where were the first vending machines introduced in the united states?.
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In 1888, Thomas Adams was the first person to build a vending machine that dispensed chewing gum. The gum, named Tutti-Frutti, was available around New York City subway stations.
5 0
3 years ago
The cash conversion cycle is computed as:
Anna [14]

Answer:

The correct option here is A) Days sales outstanding + Days inventory outstanding - Days payable outstanding.

Explanation:

Cash conversion cycle which is also termed as Net operating cycle or Cash cycle, this cycle tells us about how much time it is going to take for an organization to converts the amount of investment it has made in the inventory and various other resources to cash , which will be generated by sales.

Formula used for calculation =

                             AMOUNT OF SALES OUTSTANDING IN DAYS

                                                  +

                             AMOUNT OF INVENTORY OUTSTANDING IN DAYS

                                                  +

                             AMOUNT OF PAYABLE OUTSTANDING IN DAYS

4 0
3 years ago
A company issued a 20-year, $1,000 par value bond that pays semiannual interest of $40. If the semiannual market rate of interes
Kitty [74]

Answer: $828

Explanation:

Given the following :

Semi-annual payment = $40

Period = 20 years

Number of payments = (20 * 2)(semiannual) = 40 payments

Par value = $1000

Interest rate = 5%

Using the PV table:

PV at $1 (40, 5%) = 0.1420

PVA at $1 (40, 5%) = 17.159

[Par value * PV at $1 (40, 5%)] + [$40 * PVA at $1 (40, 5%)]

= ($1000 * 0.1420) + ($40 * 17.159)

= $142 + $686.36

=$828.36

= $826

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The answer would be Ture.
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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Kilbuck manufacturing operates in a lean manufacturing environment. kilbuck's actual conversion costs for the month of may follo
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</span><span>Machine depreciation $85,000
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<span>The journal entry to record April's conversion costs will include:
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</span></span></span>Raw materials of all kinds are measured at the start<span> recorded into </span>a list plus<span> account with a debit to the raw materials inventory account and a credit to the accounts </span>collectible<span> account.When raw materials </span>are<span> consumed, the accounting treatment varies, </span>betting on<span> their </span>standing<span> as direct or indirect materials.</span>
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3 years ago
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