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Anna11 [10]
3 years ago
13

Yooooooo somebody help me...

Mathematics
1 answer:
forsale [732]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

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What is 3 9/10 times -8/3
Triss [41]

Answer:

-52 / 5

Step-by-step explanation:

3 9/10 * -8 / 3 = 39 / 10 * -8 / 3 = -52 / 5

8 0
3 years ago
Which linear inequality is represented by the graph?
Zina [86]

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

not 100% but if you go across 1 and up 2 you get to tje line

8 0
3 years ago
Find the value of each variable in the parallelogram
Anarel [89]

Answer:

x = 9

y = 15

Step-by-step explanation:

x = 9

y = 15

I'm not sure how to explain this, but one side is equal to its opposite side in a parallelogram.

Hope this helps :)

5 0
2 years ago
A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

4 0
3 years ago
A car travels at a speed of 55 miles per hour. How far will it travel in 5 hours?
kiruha [24]

Answer:

55*5=275

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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