Answer:
x= 73
Step-by-step explanation:
you need to left the x alone
Answer:
If you comment fractions I will do them!
Step-by-step explanation:
Across:
A = 46
E = can't see the fraction
H = 2111
I = 64
J = 29
L = can't see the fraction
P = 55005
R = can't see the fraction
S = 21
T = 49
U = 308
V =129
X = can't see the fraction
Y = 4008
Z = 15
BB = 375
EE = 65
FF = 16
GG = 64
Down:
B = 600
C = can't see the fraction
D = 316
G = can't see the fraction
H = can't see the fraction
K = 9520
L = 15010
N = 299
O = 59
Q = 518
T = 4116
U = 333
V = 1006
W = 189
AA = 55
CC = 71
DD = 56
Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:
5/8
Step-by-step explanation:
1 inches in fraction form would be 8/8 inches, and the button is 3/8 inches, so a 1 inch button is 5/8 inches longer than a 3/8 inch button
Answer:
2over/a -b-c
Step-by-step explanation:
remove the parentheses
