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Deffense [45]
3 years ago
8

06:20+35min=06:23+ _ min=07:00

Mathematics
2 answers:
alexdok [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: 9:35

Step-by-step explanation:

i think that's the right answer

Katarina [22]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

27 min i think

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
Find the equation of a line that passes through the given points<br>(-6,-5) and (6,-13)
NeTakaya

Answer:

y+5=-3/4(x+6)

or in slope intercept

y= -3/4x-38/4

Step-by-step explanation:

To write the equation of a line we must have a slope and a point. To find the slope we use the slope formula and substitute (x,y) points in it as shown below:

m=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}=\frac{-5--13}{-6-6}=\frac{-5+13}{-6+-6}=\frac{8}{-12}=\frac{-3}{4}

Now that we have the slope, plug in the slope and choose one point to plug into the point slope formula. Use the point-slope form to write the equation, then simplify and convert into the slope intercept form.

(y--5)=-3/4(x--6)

y+5=-3/4(x+6)

y+5=-3/4x-18/4

y=-3/4x-18/4-20/4

y= -3/4x-38/4



5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If a fair die is rolled 6 times, what is the probability, to the nearest thousandth, of
earnstyle [38]

Answer: 0.000

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
15 decreased by twice a number x in algebriac expression
postnew [5]
2x - 15

15 is decreased that is the key word here which indicates subtraction.

twice a number with given variable x is 2x

subtraction always goes behind so 2x - 15
4 0
3 years ago
Use the fact that the mean of a geometric distribution is μ= 1 p and the variance is σ2= q p2. A daily number lottery chooses th
butalik [34]

Answer:

a). The mean = 1000

     The variance = 999,000

     The standard deviation = 999.4999

b). 1000 times , loss

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean of geometric distribution is given as , $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

And the variance is given by, $\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

Given : $p=\frac{1}{1000}$

             = 0.001

The formulae of mean and variance are :

$\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

a). Mean =   $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

              = $\mu = \frac{1}{0.001}$

              = 1000

  Variance =   $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

                  = $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-0.001}{0.001^2}$

                           = 999,000

   The standard deviation is determined by the root of the variance.

    $\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}$

        = $\sqrt{999,000}$ = 999.4999

b). We expect to have play lottery 1000  times to win, because the mean in part (a) is 1000.

When we win the profit is 500 - 1 = 499

When we lose, the profit is -1

Expected value of the mean μ is the summation of a product of each of the possibility x with the probability P(x).

$\mu=\Sigma\ x\ P(x)= 499 \times 0.001+(-1) \times (1-0.001)$

  = $ 0.50

Since the answer is negative, we are expected to make a loss.

4 0
2 years ago
I need this done by today someone plzz help me !!!
Pie
(is/of=%/100)
(12/x= 35/100) = 34.29
(500/400=x/100) = 125
8 0
3 years ago
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