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Irina18 [472]
3 years ago
5

The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a projective test ________. a. that is designed to be culturally relevant to minority gr

oups b. that employs a series of symmetrical inkblot cards c. in which people are presented with ambiguous images d. that is similar to a word association test
Business
2 answers:
dolphi86 [110]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Option C best describes TAT

Explanation:

The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)  is a projective test which involves presenting people with  ambiguous images, and they then make up stories to go with the images in an attempt to  expose their unconscious desires, fears, and struggle.

Based on the question asked, Option C best describes TAT, it  is thereby the best answer.

n200080 [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

c. in which people are presented with ambiguous images

Explanation:

The Thematic Apperception Test, also known as TAT, involves showing subjects ambiguous pictures and asking them to come up with an explanation for what is happening in the scene.

The way the test works is that subjects decipher or describe ambiguous situations based on their own past experiences and motivations in the form stories. This could either be conscious or subconscious.  Subject usually  lowers his/her guard to the examiner while describing the story. At this point, much-valuable information about the subject is being divulged.

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University Car Wash built a deluxe car wash across the street from campus. The new machines cost $213,000 including installation
djyliett [7]

Answer:

The depreciation schedule for six years is attached below.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Eric wants to invest in government securities that promise to pay $1,000 at maturity. The opportunity cost (interest rate) of ho
Scrat [10]

Answer:

The second option which 5 years to maturity exhibited a lower price of

$523.95  

Explanation:

In order to ascertain the option with lower, it is important we determine the price of each investment based on the fact the price of an investment opportunity today is the present value of its future cash flow is the maturity value of $1000 in both cases:

a.

PV=FV/(1+r)^n

PV=price of investment

FV=future value=$1000

r= 13.80%.

n=4 years

PV=$1000/(1+13.80%)^4

PV=$596.25

b.

PV=FV/(1+r)^n

PV=price of investment

FV=future value=$1000

r= 13.80%.

n=5 years

PV=$1000/(1+13.80%)^5

PV= $523.95  

7 0
3 years ago
Bond Company uses a plantwide overhead rate with direct labor hours as the allocation base. Use the following information to sol
Georgia [21]

Answer:

B. 6.2 DLH per unit of G2

Explanation:

Total cost per unit of G2:

$20 = DM + DL + OH

$20 = $7 + $3.60 + X

$20= $10.6

$20- $10.6

= $9.4

X = $9.4 overhead per unit of G2

Therefore the Plantwide overhead rate is:

$795,000/530,000 DLH = $1.5 per DLH

DLH per unit of G2:

$9.4/$1.5 = 6.26 DLH per unit of G2

7 0
4 years ago
The real interest rate is equal to the:_________
ahrayia [7]

Answer:

D. nominal interest rate minus the inflation rate.

Explanation:

The real interest rate has been adjusted for inflation.

If nominal interest rate is 6% and inflation is 2%, then the real interest rate would be 4%.

I hope my answer helps you

4 0
3 years ago
In January 2012, one US dollar was worth 50 Indian rupees. Suppose that over the next year the value of the Indian rupee decreas
satela [25.4K]

Answer:

59% - a)increase - b)decrease

Explanation:

First of all, we should say that the real exchange rate is calculated by multiplying the nominal exchange rate for the price index and then divide it by the price index of the other country. In another language, using this case as the example, the first nominal exchange rate is 50, as you need 50 rupees to buy 1 dollar. So to calculate the real exchange rate you need to multiply 50 by 100 (the price index of USA) and then divide it by 100 (the price index of India). Note that both price indexes are 100, just a coincidence for making easier the question. Result: 50.

Then we calculate the next real exchange rate: multiply 60 (the new nominal exchange rate) by 106 (the new US price index) and divide by 80 (the new India price index). This throws a result of 79,5. We see a 29,5 increase, and 29,5 represents 59% of 50 (the initial real exchange rate).

Then both questions is more common sense than the reading of the results we just calculated. For example, nominal exchange rate changed from 50 to 60, so the people in India will now have to collect 10 more rupees to buy the same dollar. Let's suppose a pair of shoes in USA costs 40 dollars. Before, Indians needed 2000 rupees to buy it. Now they will need 2400 rupees... it will be more expensive. Plus, the prices of USA had gone up 6%, which means the pair of shoes will now cost 42,4 dollars... even more expensive! As products in USA are more expensive, we can expect that India's consumption of American goods will decrease (law of demand).

With the American consumption of Indian goods happens the opposite, the goods in India became cheaper (price index has fallen), and for the Americans, the same dollars they had will buy more rupees when the exchange rate changed to 60.

3 0
3 years ago
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